The text for this article is taken from Acts 8:26-39, the account of the conversion of the Ethiopian eunuch. He seems to have been a proselyte to the Jewish religion for he had been to Jerusalem to worship when Philip, at the behest of the Holy Spirit, met him on his trip back to his homeland on the road to Gaza and proclaimed Jesus to him.
"And Philip opened his mouth, and beginning from this Scripture (Isa. 53:7-8– DS) he preached Jesus to him. And as they went along the road they came to some water; and the eunuch said, ‘Look! Water! What prevents me from being baptized?’" (Acts 8:35-36 NAS)
This shows us that when Jesus was preached baptism was preached as a part of preaching Jesus to an alien sinner. When the preaching was received (Acts 2:41) or believed (Acts 8:12) it resulted in people being baptized. The case of the Ethiopian eunuch was no exception.
Why would the eunuch request baptism if Philip had not taught him it? Furthermore, why would he request it unless he felt some urgency about it, unless he felt there was a need?
Philip taught the eunuch baptism because as Peter said on the Day of Pentecost baptism is for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38). Without the remission of one’s sins a person cannot be saved.
When Philip preached in the city of Samaria the Bible says he preached "the good news about the kingdom of God and the name of Jesus Christ" (Acts 8:12 NAS) with the result being that men and women "were being baptized" (Acts 8:12 NAS). Here in Acts 8:35-36, he has an audience of only one man and in a different location but we still see him preaching with the same result - baptism. This time it is just said that "he preached Jesus to him."
In the book of Acts up to this chapter we have had two Holy Spirit inspired men preaching - first Peter and now Philip. In each case, baptism was a part of what was preached. They preached it because the Holy Spirit by which they spoke required it. Either that or they just spoke whatever they wanted. Which do you believe?
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