Saul's Conversion--How Justified By Faith

The conversion of Saul of Tarsus, who was soon to be known as Paul the Apostle, is one of the most interesting accounts of conversion to Christianity found in the Bible. One can read about Paul's conversion in 3 different accounts given in the book of Acts--Acts 9:1-19, 22:1-16, 26:9-20. Before his conversion Saul of Tarsus was a passionate enemy of Christianity, fervent in his zeal to destroy the faith, making his conversion even more dramatic. How bad a man was Saul?

In Acts 9:1 we read about Saul "still breathing threats and murder against the disciples of the Lord." (NKJV) If it was a thing Saul was still doing it was a habitual thing with him. This was said at a time when he was setting out to Damascus to find Christians he could bind and bring back to Jerusalem for punishment (Acts 9:2). Paul says of himself, "I persecuted this Way (Christianity--DS) to the death." (Acts 22:4 NKJV) He says, testifying against himself, "Many of the saints I shut up in prison ... and when they were put to death, I cast my vote against them." (Acts 26:10 NKJV)

Will God have a man like this, a man this evil? Saul clearly had personal responsibility for the death of Christians. Christians died because of his actions whether he ever personally cast a stone to put them to death or not. But, the answer to the question of whether or not God will have a man this bad is easily answered.

The first people the gospel was ever preached to, the Jews in Jerusalem, were guilty of putting Jesus the Son of God to death. When Pilate wanted to release Jesus they would have none of it (John 19:12). They wanted him crucified. Peter confronts them with their guilt over this matter in Acts 2:23. The good news is that "Christ died for the ungodly" (Rom. 5:6 NKJV) and thus as a result of Peter's preaching on the Day of Pentecost faith was created, about three thousand souls (Acts 2:41) responded to the preaching, obeyed Peter's command to repent and be baptized for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38), and were forgiven.

Would God forgive Saul? Most certainly! Paul later says, "But God had mercy on me so that Christ Jesus could use me as a prime example of his great patience with even the worst sinners. Then others will realize that they, too, can believe in him and receive eternal life." (1 Tim. 1:16 NLT) The NLT (New Living Translation) is not a literal translation, but I believe it is an accurate rendition of the meaning of this verse and makes it easy to understand what Paul is saying.

Paul considered himself to be chief of sinners (1 Tim. 1:15) and said he was "not worthy to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God." (1 Cor. 15:9 NKJV) He said as all Christians must say, "By the grace of God I am what I am." (1 Cor. 15:10 NKJV) We must all say I am saved by the grace of God; I am what I am (assuming we are doing our best to be what God would have us to be) by the grace of God. "For by grace you have been saved through faith." (Eph. 2:8 NKJV)

Thus far we have seen the kind of man Saul of Tarsus was before his conversion and also the change of attitude and heart as a result of his conversion, but what of Saul's conversion itself? The word preached was having no effect upon him. He would have none of it and to preach it in his presence would have meant as a minimum imprisonment if he could affect it at all. Certainly, Saul had heard of Christ but wanted none of him or his message. He rejected Christ and yet Christ intervened directly in his life for a purpose--see 1 Tim. 1:16 quoted above.

It took a miracle to convert Saul of Tarsus. Without Jesus appearing directly to him and speaking with him on the road to Damascus there appears to have been little to no likelihood of Saul of Tarsus ever being converted, but the question of interest to us in this article is when in Saul's conversion was he justified by faith. Certainly, there is no doubt that this miraculous wonder Saul experienced, a light from heaven (Acts 9:3, 22:6) brighter than the sun (Acts 26:13) surrounding him and his party and a voice out of heaven telling him it was Jesus speaking to him (Acts 9:5, 22:8, 26:15) totally destroyed unbelief in Saul's life and that instantaneously.

Likewise, there can be no doubt repentance was immediate. Saul immediately became submissive to the will of God. He was told directly by Jesus that he (Saul) was a persecutor of the one who spoke to him--Christ (Acts 9:4, 22:8, 26:15). He was blinded. This was no time for rebellion against the God who was speaking out of heaven nor was there any inclination on Saul's part to be rebellious. I think we all understand that clearly. Saul's only response after knowing it was Jesus who was speaking was, "What shall I do, Lord?" (Acts 22:10 NKJV)

Virtually every denomination in the land according to their idea of what it means to be justified by faith has to have Saul saved right then and there. He has all the faith any man will ever have. He is most certainly penitent. Nevertheless, Jesus' response to Saul's question, "What shall I do, Lord," is "Arise and go into Damascus, and there you will be told all things which are appointed for you to do" (Acts 22:10 NKJV) or as recorded in Acts 9:6, "Arise and go into the city, and you will be told what you must do." (NKJV) Does must mean must?

Jesus sent the man Ananias to Saul in the city of Damascus to tell Saul those things which were appointed for him to do. One wonders what it was Ananias had to tell Saul. Was it what Saul's mission was to be? No! How do I know? I know because Saul had already been told that by Jesus on the Damascus road. Read Acts 26:16-18. He was told he was being made a minister, to be sent to the Gentiles, to turn them from darkness to light. It is true Ananias did reiterate what Jesus had already told Saul (Acts 22:14-15) but that was all it was--a retelling of what Saul had already been told by Jesus directly.

The best way to find out why Ananias was sent to Saul is to read what Jesus and Ananias had to say about it. Jesus said it was so Saul "might receive his sight." (Acts 9:12 NKJV) Ananias said Jesus "has sent me that you may receive your sight and be filled with the Holy Spirit." (Acts 9:17 NKJV) The only other comment we have on why Ananias was sent to Saul is found in Acts 9:6 and Acts 22:10 both quoted two paragraphs above.

So what was it that Saul was told by Ananias that he (Saul) was appointed to do that Saul did not already know from having heard it from Jesus himself? Was it a specific geographic area he was to be sent to in order to begin his ministry? If so, there is no mention of it in the scriptures. There was but one thing at that specific point in time he was told by Ananias that he was appointed to do. "And now why are you waiting? Arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord." (Acts 22:16 NKJV)

But, wait, that cannot be. He was justified by faith alone when he was converted on the road to Damascus. Says who? Did your Bible tell you that or was it your pastor? Perhaps it was your religious heritage that told you. Saul was certainly justified by faith, but when and where is the matter to be decided, not just assumed. Now I do not debate for a single second that Saul's heart was changed on the road to Damascus, but did that change his state is the question?

Let me illustrate. A young man and a young woman begin keeping company with one another and fall in love. They become fully committed to one another and to no other. Their faith in one another and love for one another become as solid as it can get. Yet, the marriage date is down the road a few weeks. Their hearts have been changed, but not their status, not until the marriage ceremony is performed.

Christians are married to Christ. "Therefore, my brethren, you also have become dead to the law through the body of Christ, that you may be married to another--to Him who was raised from the dead, that we should bear fruit to God." (Rom. 7:4 NKJV) But, one is not married until he/she is married despite the feelings of the heart. Baptism seems to be the marriage ceremony (so to speak) of the disciple with Christ.

Paul himself says we die in baptism (Rom. 6:4) and walk in newness of life upon our baptism; read all of Rom. 6:1-8. He says Christ cleansed the church "with the washing of water by the word." (Eph. 5:26 NKJV) The washing of water is certainly baptism. One might ask cleansed the church of what, but the answer is obvious--sin. Was Paul ever washed in water and cleansed of sin? Ananias told him to be (Acts 22:16), and the Bible says he was (Acts 9:18). When one has been cleansed of sin, his status with God has been changed. His state has changed. He is now a Christian.

A very close relative of mine used to say there was nothing in water to cleanse from sin. One might just as well say there was nothing in water to cleanse Naaman of leprosy either (see 2 Kings 5). But, you see, when God tells you to do something saying you will receive a certain blessing upon acting by faith and doing as he says, you will get the result you seek by such faith and obedience. The God who made the world is able to make good on his promises.

The real key to water for both Naaman, Saul, you, and me is nothing in the water itself (other than God's promise--God's promise is there), but God acting on our behalf when we act by faith upon the command he gave. To Naaman it was the promise of the healing of a physical disease upon dipping 7 times in the Jordan River. For you and me it is the promise of the remission of sins upon baptism. "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins." (Acts 2:38 NKJV) "Unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God." (Jesus, John 3:5 NKJV)

Paul most certainly was justified by faith, but Paul knew when that happened and if we would read the things Paul wrote on the subject and would consider them as closely as we should we would realize it as well. "According to his mercy he saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit." (Titus 3:5 NKJV) The washing here is baptism, and it is called the washing of regeneration, which means (the word means) rebirth, thus a washing resulting in a new birth.

The old Saul, the man of sin, died to sin (Rom. 6:2) when he was baptized into Christ's death (Rom. 6:3), having been crucified with him (Rom. 6:6). Paul says, "If we died with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with him" (Rom. 6:8 NKJV), but we died with Christ by being "baptized into his death." (Rom. 6:3 NKJV) When we are baptized on the basis of faith, we come up out of the water to "walk in newness of life." (Rom. 6:4 NKJV) We have been born again, born of water and the Spirit (John 3:3, 5).

One really ought to also consider Saul's state of mind prior to Ananias' arrival on the scene. He was not yet an inspired man. He knew he had been told to go into Damascus and wait for further instruction, and he knew of the vision he had of "a man named Ananias coming in and putting his hand on him, so that he might receive his sight." (Acts 9:12 NKJV) When Ananias does come, he tells Saul that Jesus has sent him (Acts 9:17). Saul has no problem believing this because it corresponds with the vision he has had and also because of what he had been told by Jesus himself on the road to Damascus. He is expecting further enlightenment from God and knows God had told him in a vision a man was coming called Ananias.

Now here is the point. Is Saul in any frame of mind to doubt the message that Ananias delivers to him? To ask is to answer. When Saul was told to arise and be baptized to wash away his sins, did Saul doubt he had sins to be washed away? Did he believe, at that point in time, that baptism was just a figure, a symbol, or a representation of a salvation already received? Now be honest with yourself before you answer that. A man comes from God and gives you this message and you know full well he was sent from God and you are going to do what--doubt him and his message? I don't think so!

Here is a point that is often overlooked as it relates to justification by faith and baptism, tying them together, and which pretty much proves the point I am trying to make relating to Saul's conversion. Speaking of the baptism taught and practiced by John the Baptist, the Bible says, "The Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of God for themselves, not having been baptized by him (by John--DS)." (Luke 7:30 NKJV) In Mark 11:30, Jesus asks the question, "The baptism of John--was it from heaven or from men? Answer me." (NKJV) This was said by Jesus to those who confronted him in the temple. Now watch closely as the Bible describes their thinking as they contemplate a response to Jesus. "And they reasoned among themselves, saying, 'If we say, 'From heaven,' he will say, 'Why then did you not believe him?' " (Mark 11:31 NKJV) This shows that one who believed was baptized. One who did not believe was not baptized. Those who did not believe and obey were certainly not justified by faith, and it has always taken faith to save a man.

Now apply the same reasoning to the baptism Jesus gave as a part of the Great Commission (Matt. 28:18-20, Mark 16:15-16). Is one going to be so daring as to claim he is justified by faith all the while disbelieving and disobeying Jesus on the subject of baptism? Jesus commanded baptism (Matt. 28:19), promised that those who believed and were baptized would be saved (Mark 16:15-16), and said that "unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God" (John 3:5 NKJV). If a man sinned and was condemned for not believing and obeying the baptism taught by John, then one must remember one far greater than John is found in Jesus the Son of God. A man was not justified by any kind of faith while rejecting John's baptism. Is it now somehow different with Jesus' baptism? I would hate to have to make that kind of argument, but it is the very argument a man must make who believes justification by faith has nothing to do with baptism and is not essential to salvation.

I have one other question to ask, then I bring this article to a close. The Bible says one reason Ananias was sent to Saul was that he might be "filled with the Holy Spirit." (Acts 9:17 NKJV) My question is this--what part did Ananias have to play in that? Only Jesus could baptize men with the Holy Spirit. True, the apostles had the power to lay hands on others and impart spiritual gifts, but only Jesus could baptize in the Holy Spirit. So, the question remains what role did Ananias have to play in that? He was not an apostle, had no power to impart spiritual gifts, and he had no power to baptize a man with the Holy Spirit.

His role was this: he told Saul what to do to become a Christian. Saul had faith, had repented, was willing to confess Jesus, but had not yet been told about taking the final step into Christ--baptism. It is Christians that God gives the Holy Spirit to. The only time in Christian history (which is Pentecost onward) a non-Christian was baptized with the Holy Spirit was the case of Cornelius and his household, and there was a specific reason behind that just as there was a specific reason God directly intervened to make Saul a believer and convert him. Ananias helped Saul be filled with the Holy Spirit by telling him what else God had appointed for him to do, "Arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins." (Acts 22:16 NKJV) When that was done, Saul had put away the old man and put on the new man (the Christian man), and the Holy Spirit was given.

You say, how can I be sure? Ask yourself some questions. What was keeping Jesus from filling Saul full of the Holy Spirit on the road to Damascus? Since Jesus baptizes with the Holy Spirit directly from heaven (day of Pentecost and the apostles, Cornelius and his household), what does he (Jesus) need Ananias for? Why wait on Ananias? There was only one reason. Saul needed to hear the completion of the first gospel sermon ever preached by man (Acts 2:38)--Peter's sermon on the Day of Pentecost. Peter was not there to preach it, but Ananias was. He needed to be told that he had sins that needed to be remitted or, as Ananias phrased it, washed away and needed to be told how to do that. He needed to be cleansed in God's sight. Then the Holy Spirit could be given. After his resurrection, Jesus never preached directly to man about salvation, but as Paul would say later, "We have this treasure in earthen vessels." (2 Cor. 4:7 NKJV) Ananias was such a vessel.

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More on Peter's First Gospel Sermon

I wrote in the past an article on Peter's first sermon, the one recorded in Acts 2 delivered on the Day of Pentecost, the day the church was established, the first gospel sermon ever preached by man after Christ's resurrection. I titled that article "Receiving the Gospel." I thought it good to go back and look again at that sermon and expound a little more on it.

As you recall a crowd was drawn together that day in the city of Jerusalem by a noise that sounded like "a rushing mighty wind." (Acts 2:2, 6 NKJV) This was occasioned by the descent of the Holy Spirit upon the apostles gathered together as a group (Acts 2:4). Peter then begins his sermon starting with the explanation of the event by quoting the prophet Joel from Joel 2:28-32, and he says this is the fulfillment of that prophecy (Acts 2:16).

The part I am interested in today for our purposes is the last quote from Joel (verse 32 in Joel 2, verse 21 as quoted by Peter in Acts 2), "whoever calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved." (Acts 2:21 NKJV) Peter says that prophecy is now being fulfilled before you who are gathered here. This was, is, and will forever be great news for all humanity as long as the earth shall stand. It is God's promise to all of us no matter how badly our lives have turned out otherwise.

The key word in this Holy Spirit inspired declaration is the word "whoever." Many translations use the word "everyone" (the ESV, NAS, NIV, NET, and the CSB). The promise of God is that you will not be excluded. It is "whoever desires, let him take the water of life freely." (Rev. 22:17 NKJV) God is "not willing that any should perish." (2 Peter 3:9 NKJV)

The only stipulation is that a person calls on the name of the Lord. So what is involved in that? Well, we know it is not saying to Jesus "Lord, Lord" for Jesus himself says, "Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father in heaven." (Matt. 7:21 NKJV)

Do you suppose Peter in that first sermon might have told his audience what the Lord's will for them was? Yes, I think we would all agree upon that. After he preached his sermon and it became evident many believed his message about Christ even to the point of asking what they could do about the sin they had committed against the Lord (Acts 2:37), Peter responded. "Then Peter said to them, 'Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.'" (Acts 2:38 NKJV)

In doing what they were instructed to do, they called upon the name of the Lord. They were saved. The scripture says, "Then those who gladly received his word were baptized; and that day about three thousand souls were added to them." (Acts 2:41 NKJV) Were they added to the saved or to the damned? That is an easy question to answer.

Remember Peter earlier, in the beginning of his sermon, had told the crowd, "Whoever calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved." They are now saved. Had they called on the name of the Lord? What had they done? Let the reader answer. I ask this of the reader for it is easier to see the truth when we see it for ourselves versus someone else telling us what it is. We need to reason it out for ourselves.

Calling on the name of the Lord means doing what God tells us to do with full faith that he will respond by doing what he told us he would do in response. The people on the Day of Pentecost obeyed Peter's spirit-inspired preaching of God's will in faith that God would remit their sins if they would do so (Acts 2:38). God would do this, for his spirit-inspired apostle said he would if they would do what he told them to do.

Paul's own conversion experience is further confirmation of this truth. Ananias in Acts 22:16, having been sent to Paul directly from God, says to Paul, a man who because of his experience on the road to Damascus is already a believer and penitent, to "Arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord." (Acts 22:16 NKJV)

There are two very important points to be made here. (1) Paul was not yet a saved man. He still had sins to be washed away. (2) He had not yet called upon the name of the Lord, for if he had done so, Peter told us in Acts 2 that all who do are saved. So, he had not yet done that. What he had done was pray, for we are told that in Acts 9:11. Praying, thus, is not the same as calling on the name of the Lord.

Ananias instructs Paul to call on the name of the Lord how, not by praying, but by arising and being baptized. If Ananias is correct that in being baptized Paul's sins will be washed away, making him sin-free, Paul will then be a saved man. If he is a saved man, he is a man who has called on the name of the Lord. God sent Ananias. Ananias was not mistaken.

Neither Ananias nor Peter nor any other Christian believes there is anything magical in water to wash away sins. There was no magic potency in the water of the Jordan River that Naaman was instructed to bathe in to cure his leprosy in the Old Testament either. The power lies in doing by faith what God tells you to do, believing if you do that God will do in turn what he promises as a result thereof. Paul's sins were washed away in water because of God's promise. "He who believes and is baptized will be saved." (Mark 16:16 NKJV) Such a person has called upon the name of the Lord.

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Peter's Second Gospel Gospel Sermon--Acts 3

Most people who know anything at all about the Christian faith realize that Peter preached the first gospel sermon ever preached on the Day of Pentecost as recorded in Acts 2. The second recorded sermon in the Christian dispensation of time is again a sermon preached by Peter as found in the next chapter, in Acts chapter 3. That there was preaching being done between Peter's first sermon and his second, there is no doubt, for the Bible says "the Lord was adding to their number day by day those who were being saved" (Acts 2:47 NAS) and this was after Pentecost but before the events recorded in Acts 3.

Of those sermons, of which we know nothing, we can only say with certainty that the truth was taught and what was taught was the same as that taught by Peter in Acts 2 by inspiration of the Holy Spirit. For it to be otherwise would be to say two or more different gospels were preached, which we are sure was not the case. Peter did not preach one gospel one day and another gospel another day. He did not have a different gospel for every day of the week or month, nor did one apostle preach one thing and another apostle preach something else.

In order to not make this article too long, I want to zero in on only one issue--what did Peter tell those he preached to on this second preaching occasion that they needed to do in order to be saved? The answer to that is found in Acts 3:19, "Repent therefore and return, that your sins may be wiped away, in order that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord." (NAS) The English Standard Version has, "Repent therefore, and turn again, that your sins may be blotted out." The New King James has, "Repent therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out."

Albert Barnes, the well-known Bible commentator, says of the Greek word translated "return" or "turn again" or "be converted" in this passage, "means properly to 'turn; to return to a path from which one has gone astray; and then to turn away from sins, or to forsake them.' It is a word used in a general sense to denote 'the whole turning to God.'" (This is from his commentary on Acts.) It does not then designate one specific thing but includes everything not covered by the word "repent."

One needs to ask some questions. Earlier in this sermon, Peter had accused those of whom he was speaking to of delivering up Jesus to be killed (Acts 3:13), disowning Jesus (Acts 3:13), and asking that a murderer be set free rather than Jesus thus condemning Jesus to death (Acts 3:14-15). In view of Jesus' innocence of all wrongdoing, this was sin and sin of the worst sort since Jesus was the Son of God. What they had done was evil and repentance was needed.

Now what is repentance? Paul says, "Godly sorrow produces repentance to salvation." (2 Cor. 7:10 NKJV) Thus godly sorrow precedes repentance and is not itself repentance. Judas was sorry but did not repent in the biblical sense of the word and was not saved; thus the sorrow he had was not "godly sorrow" since godly sorrow leads to repentance and salvation. Jesus said with reference to Judas, "The Son of Man indeed goes just as it is written of Him, but woe to that man by whom the Son of Man is betrayed! It would have been good for that man if he had never been born." (Mark 14:21 NKJV) Jesus could not have said that of Judas had Judas been saved in the end.

John the Baptist spoke of bearing "fruits worthy of repentance" (Matt. 3:8 NKJV); thus reformation of life is a product of repentance and is not in itself repentance but a result of repentance. Repentance is that which lies between godly sorrow and reformation of life, and we might ask what that is? It is a determination made in the mind and will of man to cease sin and to turn to God and live for God. It is a matter of the mind and will of man, a decision made because of godly sorrow that will lead to reformation of life, a turning from sin and a turning to God and a godly life.

The point being made is that when Peter used the phrase "return" in Acts 3:19, he had something in mind other than repentance. He had already told them to repent. He was not being redundant in his language. He was not just using different words to refer to the same thing.

Now the careful reader who reads the entire sermon (Acts 3:12-26) will note that just like in Peter's first gospel sermon (Acts 2), he does not mention faith in Christ. Is it because he does not think it matters? That is ridiculous in view of the fact that Peter is speaking by means of the Holy Spirit and the whole New Testament emphasizes faith. The explanation lies elsewhere. In Acts 3, faith in Christ is understood. How so? No one repents until convicted by guilt. No one is convicted by guilt of sin until they come to believe. It is not possible to repent until you believe. Repentance itself will be proof of faith.

If one will take the time to read Acts 3:12-18, he will see clearly that Peter has preached Christ to them and the sin he points out to them that they are guilty of is not just the murder of any ordinary man but of God's "Servant Jesus" (Acts 3:13 NAS), the "Holy and Righteous One" (Acts 3:14 NAS), the "Prince of life" (Acts 3:15 NAS). Now they have just witnessed a miracle done in the name of this Jesus whom they had put to death (the man lame from his mother's womb--Acts 3:2). Peter performed this miracle and now preaches to them. If they repent, it will only be because of faith. They will have come to believe what Peter preached.

We are now at a point in this sermon that we were in Peter's first sermon. No mention of faith, but faith is necessarily implied. We are then told directly in both sermons the necessity of repentance (Acts 2:38 and Acts 3:19). We are also told in both sermons that if those who hear will do as Peter has said, said by inspiration of the Holy Spirit, they will have "the forgiveness of your sins" (Acts 2:38), or that which is the same, "your sins may be wiped away." (Acts 3:19 NAS) But in both sermons, there is something else mentioned in addition to repentance that is necessary unless we desire to cut sentences in half and delete part of God's word on the subject.

We can now come to an understanding of what the word "return" means in Acts 3:19, the other thing Peter says that is needed to have sins wiped away, by seeing what it was Peter required of those on the Day of Pentecost in order to have "the forgiveness of your sins" (Acts 2:38 NAS). What was that one thing he mentioned that it would take to obtain the forgiveness of sins in addition to repentance on the Day of Pentecost in Acts 2? It was baptism.

Now note what Barnes said as quoted earlier. "It (a reference to the Greek word translated "return" in the NAS or "be converted" in the NKJV--DS) is a word used in a general sense to denote 'the whole turning to God.'" All that is left of that turning to God according to Peter in his Acts 2 sermon is baptism. Should we be surprised? Why should we be surprised? Do we think the Holy Spirit preached different gospels at different times? If baptism was required of those not Christians on the Day of Pentecost, why would we think it would not be required of those not Christians some days later?

But one might argue that the word "return" does not mean baptism. No, it does not, for it is a general term, not a specific term. In the KJ and the NKJV, the Greek word is translated "be converted." Surely everyone can see that phrase is general, not specific. It tells you to do something but not how to do it. You have to learn that elsewhere. How would one do that? Simple! By seeing how the thing was done under similar circumstances elsewhere--in Acts 2. How were sins wiped away elsewhere? What was required elsewhere for the forgiveness of sins?

But one might object and say it means, in this context of Acts 3, return to God. Yes, but how is that done in this gospel dispensation? How did Peter say it was done in his first gospel sermon, the first one ever preached to humanity?

A lot of denominational people do not like Peter's Acts 2 sermon because of what he says about baptism and would like to somehow or another get rid of it. One common way is to try and pit Peter against Paul, mistakenly thinking Paul taught something different on salvation (he did not). That effort will not succeed. Paul, then called Saul, was not converted until Acts chapter 9, some 3 years after the church was established, and after the gospel was being preached (dating according to "The Oxford Companion to the Bible," edited by Metzger and Coogan, pages 120-121). Were there no Christians until Paul began preaching? Acts 2:47 says there were daily conversions. Thousands were converted before Paul.

Later in his preaching on this occasion, Peter quotes Moses saying, "The Lord God shall raise up for you a prophet like me from your brethren; to him you shall give heed in everything he says to you. And it shall be that every soul that does not heed that prophet shall be utterly destroyed from among the people." (Acts 3:22-23 NAS)

If I had not been baptized for the remission of sins, I would be scared by that statement, for it was Jesus who said, "Unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God." (John 3:5 NAS) It was Jesus who said, "He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved." (Mark 16:16 NAS) It was Jesus who said to the apostles while delivering the Great Commission to "make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." (Matt. 28:19 NAS) It was Jesus that said all of that. It was Peter, quoting Moses, who said if you do not heed everything he (Jesus--DS) said, you shall "be utterly destroyed from among the people." (Acts 3:23 NAS) Was Peter inspired to say that? What do you think?

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Peter's Preaching And The Apostle's Preaching

It is not uncommon to hear people express doubts about the harmony of the preaching and teaching found in the New Testament, often doing so by making the claim that the various writers of the New Testament differed in what they taught. Often those who make such claims will pit Paul against James or Peter against Paul.

The truth is the scriptures do not belong to Paul, or James, or Peter, or any other writer even if their name happens to be attached to a book or letter. "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness." (2 Tim. 3:16 NKJV) The scriptures came by inspiration of the Holy Spirit. God used men's tongues and pens to give us the message of inspiration. To say that one New Testament preacher/writer contradicted another is to say that God himself is inconsistent and says and teaches one thing at one time and another thing at another time. It is to say there is more than one gospel which is the very thing scripture denies.

One can "pervert the gospel of Christ" (Gal. 1:7 NKJV) but you cannot make two gospels out of one. Paul says, by inspiration, "But even if we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel to you than what we have preached to you, let him be accursed." (Gal. 1:8 NKJV) One gospel was preached by inspiration.

Jesus commanded the apostles, "But when they arrest you and deliver you up, do not worry beforehand, or premeditate what you will speak. But whatever is given you in that hour, speak that; for it is not you who speak, but the Holy Spirit." (Mark 13:11 NKJV) I quote that passage as I want you the reader to have it in mind for I want to take a look at a specific instance of just such an occasion and the preaching that was done on that occasion. I want to examine the sermon Peter and the apostles gave in Acts 5 with a view of showing its harmony with Peter's first gospel sermon in Acts 2 and thus the agreement in preaching the gospel among all the apostles including one yet to come--the apostle Paul--who will not be converted until chapter 9 in the book of Acts.

In Acts 5 we have the apostles arrested and imprisoned (Acts 5:17-18). That night while in prison an angel came to their rescue releasing them and instructing them to go to the temple and resume their teaching (Acts 5:19-20). This they did but once again were rearrested and brought before the high priest and the Jewish council (Acts 5:27).

Which of the apostles was the spokesperson for the group in Acts 5, we are not told, but the text says "then Peter and the other apostles answered" (Acts 5:29 NKJV), so we can be certain that all the apostles were in agreement, for the answer made is attributed to all of them.

The entire discourse as recorded follows: "But Peter and the other apostles answered and said: 'We ought to obey God rather than men. The God of our fathers raised up Jesus whom you murdered by hanging on a tree. Him God has exalted to His right hand to be Prince and Savior, to give repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins. And we are His witnesses to these things, and so also is the Holy Spirit whom God has given to those who obey Him.'" (Acts 5:29-32 NKJV)

Let us examine this sermon starting by talking about "obedience." As it relates to the gospel being preached, it is the last use of the word "obey" in this discourse that is of greatest interest in determining the gospel being preached. Who receives the Holy Spirit? It is "those who obey Him"--obey God, obey Jesus--as clearly stated in the text. The Hebrew writer says of Jesus, "He became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him." (Heb. 5:9 NKJV)

Is obedience a part of the gospel? Did Peter preach obedience in his first gospel sermon, the first such sermon ever preached to mankind, in Acts 2? He commanded those that day to "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit." (Acts 2:38 NKJV) This statement was made after the Holy Spirit had fallen on Peter (see Acts 2:4) and he was thus speaking by means of the Holy Spirit. Could you do what Peter asked those in that audience to do that day without being obedient? Of course not! Yes, Peter preached obedience on the Day of Pentecost just as he and the other apostles are doing this day in Acts 5.

They say the Holy Spirit is given to those who obey God (Acts 5:32). One must obey God to have the Spirit. When Jesus returns it will be "in flaming fire taking vengeance…on those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ." (2 Thess. 1:8 NKJV) All the apostles were thus in agreement on the need for obedience and this would include Paul when he later became an apostle.

This was what Peter preached in his second gospel sermon recorded in Acts 3 as well when he quoted Moses, "For Moses truly said to the fathers, 'The Lord your God will raise up for you a Prophet like me from your brethren. Him you shall hear in all things, whatever He says to you. And it shall come to pass that every soul who will not hear that Prophet shall be utterly destroyed from among the people.'" (Acts 3:22-23 NKJV)

To "hear" does not just mean the physical act of hearing, but rather means to obey.

To obey meant to obey what? Well, it meant to obey all things the apostles spoke by the Holy Spirit. What was that as it related to gospel obedience, to making one a Christian? It included what Peter commanded in his Day of Pentecost sermon in Acts 2, preached by means of the Holy Spirit.

Some may be troubled by the fact that faith is not mentioned in that sermon (the Day of Pentecost sermon in Acts 2). My question is, does it have to be when it is clearly implied? For that matter, no mention of faith is made in this Acts 5 sermon either, but it is implied. Where is the man to be found capable of scriptural repentance who does not first believe? Where is the man who is willing to be obedient to baptism who does not first believe? Can a man be scripturally baptized who does not believe? No! When a thing is clearly implied in scripture, it does not need to be mentioned.

It is said that the Catholics baptize babies who cannot believe. Do they? Where does the Bible teach that sprinkling is baptism? Men made sprinkling baptism, not God. It became a tradition of men. In the New Testament, a man was baptized when he was buried in water. There was no other way to be baptized. Secondly, the Bible teaches, "He who believes and is baptized will be saved" (Mark 16:16 NKJV) and not "he who is incapable of believing and is baptized will be saved." One comes from God; the other is a man-made doctrine. Besides, babies are pure in God's sight, sinless, and have no need of baptism.

In Acts 5:31, the apostles state that Jesus is the Savior who gives repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins. How does he do that? Peter has preached this before, saying basically the same thing, simply phrasing it differently, in the Acts 2:38 passage. God gives man repentance by giving him motives to lead him to repent. One must first see his need for repentance, see his own sins so he will feel them in his heart, before he is capable of repenting of them.

In both the sermon in Acts 2 and this one in Acts 5, sin is pointed out--there is need of repentance. In Acts 2, Peter says, "you have taken by lawless hands, have crucified, and put to death" Jesus. (Acts 2:23 NKJV) In Acts 5 the apostles refer to those whom they are addressing as murderers (see Acts 5:30). In Acts 3:15, Peter says to the crowd gathered there that they "killed the Prince of life." (NKJV)

The point is that apostolic preaching dealt with sin and the need to repent. So, we see repentance was preached by the apostles. It was preached in Acts 5:31; it was preached in Acts 2:38; it was preached in Acts 3:19. Preaching the gospel always involved the subject of repentance from sin and always will, for that is a part of gospel obedience.

How did and how does Jesus give to man forgiveness of sins? We could say salvation is the gift of God and is by grace, and that would be true. But is there anything God has asked man to do before he will extend that grace to man and grant him forgiveness?

If you say no, then you have immediately rejected the need for both faith and repentance. If we believe faith is essential and if we believe repentance is essential, then we must admit man plays a role in his salvation despite it being a gift and we admit there are things man must do. In Acts 2, Peter said one of the things a man must do was be baptized "in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins." (Acts 2:38 NKJV)

Does Jesus give forgiveness of sins? Yes, but it is conditional. Jesus said, "He who believes and is baptized will be saved." (Mark 16:16 NKJV) Most people want to make that read "he who believes and is baptized or is not baptized will be saved," but that is adding to the scripture and is not what Jesus taught but what man desires to teach.

Peter, by the Holy Spirit, speaking on the day of Pentecost, told penitent believers, "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit." (Acts 2:38 NKJV)

Some say yes, that is what the text says, but it is not what it means. Evidently, Peter did not know that, for years later he was still saying, "There is also an antitype which now saves us, namely baptism." (1 Peter 3:21 NKJV) If a man is saved, he is saved from sin and the only way that is accomplished is through God's forgiveness. Peter says baptism saves. He does not say baptism alone without faith or repentance.

There was no disagreement among the apostles when Peter first preached baptism for the remission of sins on the Day of Pentecost. All the apostles were in agreement with Peter's preaching. Jesus himself had taught them while still on earth that "unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God." (John 3:5 NKJV) They had been commanded at the time Jesus ascended back into heaven to go make disciples and do what? Baptize them! (Matt. 28:19 NKJV) Which ones? Every single one of them with no exceptions. If you say no, then you are under obligation to tell us which ones were not to be baptized.

Just by coincidence, I am now reading a book entitled A History of Christianity, Vol. 1, Beginnings to 1500 by Kenneth Scott Latourette, copyright 1953, Revised Edition. (That was years ago when this article was first written.) This is a large book of nearly 700 pages by Mr. Latourette, who was Director of Graduate Studies at the Yale Divinity School at the time of his retirement in 1953. I want to quote from that book, for it bears directly on the subject at hand. "In its earlier days the Church maintained rigorous standards for its membership. As we have seen, baptism was believed to wash away all sins committed before it was administered." (Page 138) He says of the Emperor Constantine that he "did not receive baptism until the latter part of his life…from the conviction, then general, that it washed away all previous sins." (Page 93)

People today do not want to believe that anyone at any time ever believed that baptism was God's means of washing away (spiritually speaking) the sins of man, but that will not change history or the teaching of the New Testament on the subject. The modern-day idea of salvation by faith alone came from the Middle Ages and not from the first, second, third, or fourth centuries or from the Bible.

In the same book, I quote again only this time of Augustine. "As a youth Augustine was given Christian instruction. His mother did not have him baptized because, accepting the belief that baptism washed away sins committed before it was administered, she wished him to defer it until after the heat of youth was passed and with it the excesses of that ardent age." (Page 96) Born in 354 AD, he was baptized on April 25, 387 AD.

In closing, I want to point out that thousands of people were saved by obeying the gospel before Paul ever became an apostle. Some would like to claim that Paul preached a grace that Peter did not. They desire two different gospels. Paul himself denied, as pointed out earlier in this piece, that there were two or more gospels. When one understands Paul's preaching correctly, he will find Peter's preaching also for both taught and preached the same gospel and that gospel had baptism in it for the remission of sins. It was the same gospel the 12 apostles put their stamp of approval on the Day of Pentecost. They put their stamp of approval on it, for the Holy Spirit gave it, and who were they to dispute the Spirit of God? Who are you and I to do so today?

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