The Need to Preach on Sin

There is a great need to preach on sin today. I am not at all sure that sin is any worse or more prevalent today than in generations past for one can go back in history and find unimaginable sin. Human sacrifice, cannibalism, idol worship, all forms of sexual debauchery, witchcraft, mass murderers (think Hitler, Stalin, Mao, Pol Pot in more recent history), you name it, and you can find it in the history of the sins of mankind. History has taught us how depraved man can be.

However, if you and I are not as bad as some other person, as regards sin, so what? Does that make a person righteous just because he can find others worse than himself? Does that make me angelic? No! "All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." (Rom. 3:23 NKJV) "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us." (1 John 1:8 NKJV) "The wages of sin is death." (Rom. 6:23 NKJV)

We all live condemned before God based on the sin in our life unless it is forgiven. Men need to be convicted of sin to motivate them to turn from it and turn to God.

What is sin and what makes it so bad? "Sin is the transgression of the law" (1 John 3:4 KJV) or, as the New King James Version puts it, "sin is lawlessness." It is disobedience to the law of God, whether willful or otherwise. What makes it so bad? It displaces God as the rightful ruler of the world and puts man in God's place. It mocks God as if to say who is God that I (man) should obey him.

Why must sin be punished? Because, if it is not, God cannot be God. Law that is not enforced is, in reality, no law at all. God, the lawmaker, is not glorified but mocked if his law is not upheld. Disrespect or disobedience to the law is really an affront to the lawgiver. Sin must be punished; otherwise, the lawmaker must step down and lose all authority to rule, for if he will not enforce his law, how can he rule at all? And, besides that, sin is evil. Should not evil be punished?

Remove punishment for sin and righteousness ceases to exist; what is right then becomes what the strongest man says is right. Hitler was, in such a scenario, only wrong because he failed to win the war. In a world without God, there is no such thing as an absolute standard of right and wrong. You can only have God if God is God and rules as God by putting teeth into his commandments, enforcing obedience by punishing disobedience.

God gives to the world security. We know sin will be punished and will not ultimately win out. We know evil and wickedness will not last forever. To paraphrase a preacher I once heard, if there is no hell or punishment for sin then Hitler got off scot-free for what happened to him happens to all men--he died. He died, but so will you and I. He got away with mass murder if there is no punishment for sin.

The truth is the rational man wants sin punished. To have God you must have sin (the transgression of the law) punished for God must rule. If sin is punished, then God is, and hope exists. Without God there is no hope for we know we will grow old and die and if God does not exist there is no hope of any afterlife.

What then--was man created simply so God could rule and punish men for their sin? Not at all! Man was created to live with God eternally. "God is not willing that any should perish." (2 Peter 3:9 NKJV) "'As I live,' says the Lord God, 'I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but that the wicked turn from his way and live.'" (Ezek. 33:11 NKJV) Man was created to give God glory throughout eternity. "Everyone who is called by my name, whom I have created for my glory; I have formed him, yes, I have made him." (Isa. 43:7 NKJV)

God knew man would sin and that he had to punish sin but made provision to do that through his son Jesus, Jesus suffering for us, even before the world began. "Knowing that you were not redeemed with corruptible things, like silver or gold, from your aimless conduct received by tradition from your fathers, but with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot. He indeed was foreordained before the foundation of the world." (1 Peter 1:18-20 NKJV) Note the phrase "foreordained before the foundation of the world."

Another like passage is found in Eph. 1:4, "Just as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love." (NKJV) Note again, "before the foundation of the world." Jesus is "the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world." (Rev. 13:8 NKJV) John the Baptist, when he saw Jesus coming toward him, said of him, "Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world." (John 1:29 NKJV)

No, God did not create man without knowing man would sin. It was never his plan that man be doomed without hope. God is love (1 John 4:8). He had a plan from the very beginning to both punish sin and save man while upholding his law and authority. That plan involved Christ.

"Now, once at the end of the ages, he has appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself." (Heb. 9:26 NKJV) "Christ was offered once to bear the sins of many." (Heb. 9:28 NKJV) He "bore our sins in his own body on the tree." (1 Peter 2:24 NKJV) Jesus was born to die with the purpose of that death being to pay the penalty for the sin of man. Jesus died so we do not have to die eternally, which is to say we can be saved from the punishment for our sins against God if we are willing to accept the sacrifice Jesus made by obeying the gospel. God punished our sins through Jesus' willing sacrifice on the cross. Make no mistake about it, God did uphold the honor of his law and did punish sin on the cross of Jesus at Calvary.

For the man or woman who is not willing to accept Jesus (in gospel obedience), who desires to serve himself and do as he pleases, the sacrifice of Jesus is of no benefit to such a person. Such a man or woman is at war with God; they are unthankful and unholy. He will show God who is boss. He will show God who runs his life. He will show God who is God, namely himself. What a fool such a person is. He is going to take on the creator of all that exists in the heavens and on earth, going to take on the one who has lived eternally. He is willing to take on God when he would run from a mean dog. That is irrational thinking--can't take on a mean dog but thinks he will take on God. How foolish man can be.

God is our only hope. We need to submit to his will. I have never known a man who thought the teachings of Christ as found in the New Testament were evil. All agree that if all men would live by those teachings we would have a much happier and safer world than we do today. Those teachings bring only good to man, no evil, and give good hope of a wonderful life to come.

How sad it is then that men today will not preach against sin, showing men their sins, confronting them with them, so that they might be made aware of sin and its consequences and be led to repentance, gospel obedience, and forgiveness.

If we preach the Bible, we must preach about sin. Have you ever given it thought that if there were no sin, there would be no need for the Bible, no need for Jesus the Savior, no need for the cross? Every man and woman has sinned and needs to have it forgiven if they are to obtain heaven. When we fail to preach on sin we leave sinners in sin thinking all is well with their souls and thus help them along the road to hell. If I help a man get to hell, I am going to have to pay for my sin in doing so.

No man will repent unless and until he knows he needs to.  Men must be made to feel the guilt of sin if they are to be converted. "Godly sorrow produces repentance to salvation, not to be regretted." (2 Cor. 7:10 NKJV) It is the job of the church and every member to help bring godly sorrow into the lives of men and women who are involved in sin. They need to know what the Bible says about sin and need to know there is a way out through Jesus.

People living in adultery are a good example of the kind of thing I am talking about. The Bible only gives one reason for a second marriage aside from the death of one's spouse. "And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery." (Matt. 19:9 NKJV) Unless there has been fornication on the part of one's spouse, it is adultery to divorce and remarry and yet it is rare to hear preaching against this sin. Why not? Because many religious bodies that call themselves Christian have come to accept this sin and accept those involved in it as members in good standing. What does God say about it?

"Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit the kingdom of God." (1 Cor. 6:9-10 NKJV) John the Baptist lost his head over this matter telling Herod it was not lawful for him (Herod) to have his brother Philip's wife (Matt. 14:3-4). This woman, although married to Herod, was always referred to in scripture as "Philip's wife" and not Herod's.

The same sin abounds today in America but rather than having men like John the Baptist preaching against it many religious bodies just welcome in the adulterous couple as full-fledged members in good standing. They welcome them on their way to hell with not a word to warn them. John the Baptist lost his head in preaching against the sin, but who is to say the modern-day preacher will not lose his soul for holding his silence, refusing to preach against it and other sins?

When we fail to preach against sin we "have strengthened the hands of the wicked, so that he does not turn from his wicked way to save his life." (Ezek. 13:22 NKJV) Shall we be found innocent on the Day of Judgment when we remained silent in the face of sin lest we hurt feelings and be found to be disagreeable? What is needed is preaching and teaching against sin and not acceptance of it as though all is well.

I am glad I was raised in a time (50's and 60's) where I was able to hear fire and brimstone sermons about sin and hell. There was little to no hesitancy to preach against sin in those days. Such sermons were needed then and are needed now, whether they are preached or not. Jesus did not go to the cross and die just so we can continue to be sinners. What has happened to the gospel of Christ? I fear it has been replaced by a social gospel and by benevolent societies calling themselves churches.

You can feed and clothe a man or woman until old age and death but that will not get them to heaven without repentance and obedience to the gospel of Christ. They will still have the problem of sin, and you will have your own sin problem if you fail to teach them the truth about sin when you could have.

We can either preach on sin or we can let people die in sin thinking all is well. The trouble is not only will they reap what they sow but so will we. "Do not be deceived, God is not mocked; for whatever a man sows, that he will also reap." (Gal. 6:7 NKJV) Why not encourage your preacher to preach on sin? To preach on sin is to save souls.

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Faith, Works, Baptism, and Obedience

Many believe that since the Bible teaches justification by faith (Rom. 5:1) and not by works (Eph. 2:8-9, Titus 3:5) baptism is excluded as an act essential to salvation despite many passages that teach just the opposite (Acts 2:38, 22:16, 1 Peter 3:21, Titus 3:5, Eph. 5:26, 1 Cor. 12:13 compared with Eph. 5:23 [baptized into one body, Christ the Savior of the body], John 3:5, Gal. 3:26-27, etc.). It is the burden of this article to show the fallacy of this belief.

In the first place, the Bible teaches that baptism is not a work of righteousness which we have done, just the opposite, as stated in Titus 3:5, "Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit." (NKJV) The washing of regeneration is a reference to baptism and is excluded by Paul as being a work of righteousness which we have done that in itself saves us apart from God’s mercy. What is baptism then? It is a part of God’s means of extending his mercy to mankind. Baptism is God showing us kindness. It is God through grace giving us a means to be saved by his mercy.

Water baptism amounts to nothing, is worthless, without God behind it in his compassion for us. When Naaman dipped seven times in the Jordan River for his cleansing from leprosy (2 Kings 5) it would not have made an ounce of difference without God being behind the command with the extension of his grace. The water did not cleanse Naaman, God did, but Naaman was not going to be cleansed without dipping in the Jordan those seven times, without obeying the command to do so. Why can’t we see the parallel with baptism in our day?

One acquainted with the New Testament cannot read Titus 3:5 without being reminded of John 3:5, "Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God." (NKJV) Paul, in Titus, is saying what Jesus said in John. To be saved in Titus is to enter the kingdom of God in John. To be saved is to be in the kingdom of God, where the saved are.

Indeed, Paul teaches justification by faith. "The just shall live by faith." (Rom. 1:17 NKJV) "Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law." (Rom. 3:28 NKJV) "Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom also we have access by faith into this grace in which we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God." (Rom. 5:1-2 NKJV)

One cannot enter the waters of baptism without faith in what God said about doing so and expect the cleansing of sin. If I do not believe what God said about it I have not acted in faith and cannot be justified by faith.

In the book of Romans, from which I have just quoted, Paul is writing to a mixed audience of Jews and Greeks. The Jews came to Christianity out of the background of Judaism and the Law of Moses. Much of what Paul writes in Romans is directed to the Jews whose inclination through much of the first century was to try and hang on to both the Law of Moses and to Christ at the same time. The Law of Moses was a law system, not a faith system. What was the problem with the Law of Moses, a works system of salvation?

Paul tells us, "For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, 'Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.'" (Gal. 3:10 NKJV) James says, "Whoever shall keep the whole law, and yet stumble in one point, he is guilty of all." (James 2:10 NKJV) This is the problem not just with the Law of Moses but with any and all law systems God might give man. As soon as a man violates one law, justice demands satisfaction--punishment--"the law brings about wrath; for where there is no law there is no transgression." (Rom. 4:15 NKJV) To violate a law of God, any law he gives, is unrighteousness, is sin. "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." (1 John 3:4 KJV)

Jesus was the only sinless man to ever live. Law condemns all of us for we have all broken God's law. "All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." (Rom. 3:23 NKJV) Thus, "by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified." (Gal. 2:16c NKJV) The word "the" in Gal 2:16 just quoted is not found in the original but was added by the translators in both instances. When translated without the additions, it reads as follows: "By works of law no flesh shall be justified." If you check an interlinear you will find this to be true. What is the point?

The point is, while it is true Paul had specific reference to the Law of Moses because that is the law his audience had in mind, he phrases his statement in such a way as to include all law. No one will ever get to heaven by perfect keeping of works of law. Paul says the same thing in Rom. 3:28 where again the word "the" has been added by translators and is not in the original. It thus should read as follows: "Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of ("the" omitted here is not in the original manuscripts--DS) law." (NKJV) Deeds are works.

A question thus arises. If I am not saved by works of law why be concerned with obedience? Paul knew this was what some would conclude and he begins to address that issue in Rom. 6:1 where he says, "What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin that grace may abound?" (NKJV) Remember it is "by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God." (Eph. 2:8 NKJV)

Paul never meant to imply that obedience was optional. Paul responds vigorously saying, "God forbid" (ASV, KJV), "By no means!" (ESV), "May it never be" (NAS), "Certainly not!" (NKJV) He says, "How shall we who died to sin live any longer in it?" (Rom. 6:2 NKJV)

He then says, "Do you not know," introducing the subject of baptism, "that as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death? Therefore we were buried with him through baptism into death." (Rom. 6:3-4 NKJV) Whose death? Into Christ's death but watch it closely for up pops verse 8, "Now if we died with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with him." (NKJV) So we are baptized into Christ's death but that is also the place where "we died with Christ." When we arise from this death we "should walk in newness of life" (Rom. 6:4 NKJV) for we have been granted a new spiritual life and we should "present yourselves to God as being alive from the dead." (Rom. 6:13 NKJV) We have been "set free from sin" (Rom. 6:18 NKJV), but when? When we died to it, "For he who has died has been freed from sin." (Rom. 6:7 NKJV, see also Rom. 6:2) When did we die? In baptism (Rom. 6:4). Thus no baptism, then no death, then no being freed from sin. This is in perfect accord with Acts 2:38 and the long list of other passages on baptism referenced in the very first paragraph of this article.

Now who is Paul talking to? To Christians who have been justified by faith, not by works. Did Paul consider baptism to be a work of the kind of which he had been talking about by which a man could not be saved? Not at all! How then did he consider it? As a part of being justified by faith.

Paul begins the book of Romans with this statement in chapter 1 verse 5 saying he had been given grace and apostleship "to bring about the obedience of faith among all the Gentiles, for his name's sake." (NAS) The NKJV says, "among all nations for his name" instead of "all the Gentiles." But what was the objective? Obedience of faith! Why? Because without obedience faith is dead and cannot save anyone and that is from the get-go, from the very beginning. "Faith without works is dead." (James 2:26 NKJV)

When Peter stands up on the Day of Pentecost and preaches the first gospel sermon ever, creates by his preaching faith in those who hear, and then tells them what to do in response to their question asking what they can do he responds by saying, "repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins." (Acts 2:38 NKJV) You cannot tell me they were justified by faith if their response was "I don't think so right now, maybe later." Nor can you tell me they were justified by faith if they failed to believe the word of God that baptism was for the remission of sins, just as Peter speaking by the Holy Spirit said, for that would not be belief but unbelief or disbelief. It would be the same as calling God a liar.

Paul closes the book of Romans the same way he opened it, "has been made known to all the nations, leading to obedience of faith." (Rom. 16:26 NAS) “Obedience of faith” is obedience led by faith or obedience because of faith or out of faith. What does that mean then? Faith must precede obedience. The justifying faith Paul was talking about in the book of Romans was a faith that led to obedience. Faith must precede obedience before you can have obedience out of faith.

There has never been a baptism acceptable to God but what it was first preceded by faith and submitted to by faith. This in itself invalidates infant baptism as the infant is incapable of having faith. Faith saves because it believes God and does not doubt; therefore, it acts. Without obedience (acts, works, call it what you will), faith never really lives and is dead from the beginning and thus never saved the man at any point in time. If dead faith saved, the demons would be saved for James says they believe (James 2:19). The same could be said of those rulers who believed in Jesus but did not confess him because they loved the praise of men more than the praise of God (John 12:42-43).

Baptism is the dividing line between living faith and dead faith. Why? Is it because I said so? No! It is because Paul said when we arise from baptism that we "should walk in newness of life." (Rom. 6:4 NKJV) We are baptized into Christ (Gal. 3:27 NKJV). In Christ we are a new creation (2 Cor. 5:17 NKJV). The old man died in baptism and we arise a new creation. If we are saved before baptism (a baptism growing out of faith) the question ought to be asked who is it that dies in baptism? Is it a saved man? Paul teaches that we die in baptism in the Romans 6:2-8 passage, but why would you want to put a saved man to death? Why kill a saved man? That is the position they put themselves in who believe we are saved by faith before baptism. This is a question that needs an answer.

I want to remind the reader once again of what Paul said of baptism in Titus 3:5, "not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit." (NKJV) God gave us baptism (the washing of regeneration) as a part of his saving mercy towards us, not as a work of righteousness which we have done that works our way to heaven.

Baptism puts us into Christ where salvation is. Paul says in this very book of Romans, where he promotes the doctrine of justification by faith, that there is "no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus." (Rom. 8:1 NKJV) In the same book he tells us how we got into Christ Jesus where there is no condemnation. He says, "Do you not know that as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus …" (Rom. 6:3 NKJV).

This idea of separating faith from baptism is all man's doing. You'll not find it in the Bible. Paul says in the Galatian letter, "For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ." (Gal. 3:26-27 NKJV) How do you get into Christ? Paul tells us a second time in this passage, that is if we did not get it the first time in the Roman passage just quoted in the prior paragraph. But, Paul tells us more. What?

He tells us you cannot separate faith from baptism unless you do it on your own initiative. The word "for" beginning in verse 27 of Galatians 3 ties it to verse 26. You cannot separate the two sentences. There is more.

Can one put on Christ without baptism? Those who say you can ought to provide the passage that tells us that. According to this Galatian passage it is done by baptism. I have never found another passage anywhere that has given an alternative.

Paul says those who are sons of God were baptized and thereby put on Christ. There is a law of exclusion in play here. If you were not baptized you did not put on Christ in baptism and are therefore excluded from being a son of God.

To summarize, "the just shall live by faith" (Rom. 1:17, Gal. 3:11, Heb. 10:38 NKJV) but it is such a faith that when it hears it believes and obeys and is not indifferent to obedience. It is thus a living faith. It does not fear that obedience is working your way to heaven. Neither Peter nor Paul nor any other New Testament writer ever feared that obedience would be looked upon by God as an attempt to work your way to heaven. Baptism is God’s extension of grace to us, his means of cleansing us, chosen by him, not us, and not a part of works of righteousness that we have done that merit salvation.  

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Misunderstanding the Grace of God

Several years ago I submitted an article to an online site that said it was a Christian article directory. It was a short article entitled "Receiving the Gospel.” It was deemed to be unfit for a Christian article directory. The editor of the directory said to me in an e-mail that he believed man was saved by grace without baptism which in the context of the article submitted meant without obeying Peter's directive on the Day of Pentecost as found in Acts 2:38.

His position was not uncommon. Millions of people have read Paul's statement in Eph. 2:8-9, "for by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast" (NKJV) and said okay, that is it, no need for further study.

I want to say first of all this is a poor approach to God's word to isolate and elevate part of his word over and above the rest of his word. That approach makes you and me judge over the word; we make ourselves God and decide what is vital in the word and what is not. Jesus when tempted by the devil said that "man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceeds from the mouth of God." (Matt. 4:4 NKJV) That’s "by every word … of God," not just by the words of one's choosing.

In the second place, it needs to be pointed out that I think every single person who claims to be a Christian believes salvation is by grace through faith including myself. Is there a person on earth who thinks he has always done the right thing and never sinned? I can name many of my sins. Some of them have been an embarrassment to me, all of them of which I am aware have lowered my self-esteem, some have hurt others, all have hurt my relationship with God. I will never be the person I could have been due to the sin in my life. How about you, if you are honest how about you? Yes, we are saved by grace for we are undeserving of salvation.

Grace is often defined as unmerited favor, the unmerited favor of God toward man, and that hits the mark pretty close to dead center. When one knows he is a sinner he knows that on his own merits, he does not deserve salvation. I have often thought I needed to be punished, could almost wish I could do it myself. There is no thought of deserving anything other than that—punishment.

Grace encompasses all the good things God has done for us in bringing us salvation. When God sent Jesus into the world was that not an act of grace? When Jesus went to the cross for us shedding his blood for our salvation was that not God's grace?

When God gave us his word was that not an act of grace? When God confirmed his word by signs and wonders in the first century allowing us to know that it was God giving the word was that not an act of grace?

There is a passage in Rom. 2:4 that bears on the thing I am trying to get at. It says, "Or do you despise the riches of His goodness, forbearance, and longsuffering, not knowing that the goodness of God leads you to repentance?" (Rom 2:4 NKJV) Is this not God's grace? Is not his goodness, forbearance, and longsuffering toward us that we might repent of our sins God's grace?

Peter says, "The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance." (2 Peter 3:9 NKJV) Is this not grace? Just God giving us time to get our life in order is that not grace? Yes, we are saved by God's grace working in so many different ways for our salvation without which we could not be saved, none of us.

But here is my problem with those in the denominational world on the subject of grace. Their idea is that one is essentially saved by God's grace alone without man being under any obligation to do anything. They see grace as unconditional, dependent only upon faith.

They reject baptism as essential to salvation. I see it as another aspect of God's grace. If God tells me to do something to have my sins forgiven ("repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins"--Acts 2:38 KJV) he was under absolutely no obligation whatsoever to give me that option whereby my sins could be forgiven. I was shown grace by him telling me what to do and giving me a promise that upon doing it my sins will be forgiven--that to me is an act of grace on his part.

Denominationalists argue that it is not, that it’s works. Their idea is that there is nothing you can do for salvation other than depend on God's grace with the idea being that it is a kind of a one-time packaged deal given to you at the point of belief by which you are then and there saved without any further action on your part period. Lest anyone misunderstand I am talking about initial salvation.

That thinking reminds me of a Christmas gift I received in the past. I received as a gift a gift card. To use it I had to get in the car, drive a distance, take up my time and make an effort, find what I wanted, drag it up to checkout, haul it out to the car, drive home, and unload it. Nevertheless, I saw the gift card as an act of grace on the part of the giver. I never once said, "This is work, not a gift." In fact, I will take all of the gift cards you want to give me and praise you for your grace towards me despite the fact I will have to put forth a little effort to get the benefit of them.

Jesus said, "Not everyone who says to Me, 'Lord, Lord,' shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father in heaven." (Matt. 7:21 NKJV) When Peter said, "repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38 KJV), when Ananias told Saul, "arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins" (Acts 22:16 NKJV) I wonder was that the will of the Father in heaven? Was that grace? What do you think? Can you be saved without doing the will of the Father? Jesus says no, most denominational people say in the case of baptism yes.

But, let me talk a little about salvation by grace through faith versus salvation by works. Paul talks at length about this in the book of Romans and in Galatians. Under the Law of Moses, a man was required to keep perfectly the law to be saved. None could do so thus obviously none could be saved on that basis.

This was true of the Law of Moses but it is just as true of any law that a perfect God might give to mankind. Paul says, "For if there had been a law given which could have given life, truly righteousness would have been by the law." (Gal. 3:21b NKJV) John says much the same to us for in speaking to Christians he says, "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us." (1John 1:8 NKJV) Sin is a transgression of the law of God, "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." (1 John 3:4 KJV)

God has a law today. He has always had a law. Today's law is the law of Christ (Gal. 6:2, 1 Cor. 9:21). But, no matter how much we might desire to do so and despite our best efforts, we cannot keep the law of Christ perfectly any more than the children of Israel could keep the Law of Moses perfectly thus if there is to be salvation it must be by grace which it is.

Does this then mean that man can ignore Jesus' commands and disbelieve the things he said whether directly or indirectly (through the inspired writers of the New Testament)? If grace comes through faith what kind of faith is it that will not believe that which has been spoken or written? If the Lord speaks and I claim to be a man of faith will I not believe his words? Grace comes through faith (Eph. 2:8) but does it come through a faith that disbelieves those things plainly written? The language the inspired writers used about baptism is too clear for misunderstanding as to its purpose.

Let us take a closer look at Paul who wrote a great deal about salvation by grace and faith. (We act as though that is all he wrote on the subject of salvation.) The very same man that wrote Eph. 2:8 ("for by grace you have been saved through faith") also wrote Gal. 3:26-27, "(26) For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. (27) For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ." (NKJV) Many, perhaps even most in denominational churches, taking the smorgasbord approach, will take verse 26 and leave off verse 27. That cannot be done by a man of genuine faith. The man of faith believes all God has said on a subject. The denominationalist says you put on Christ at the point of faith. Paul says not so. Paul says by grace I have been saved through faith and then tells me I put on Christ in baptism, not before baptism. Will I believe all Paul said or just what I want?

But, here is the clincher that destroys all arguments that attempt to separate baptism from grace. Paul, who remember said "by grace you have been saved" (Eph. 2:8 NKJV), writes in 2 Tim. 2:1, "You therefore, my son, be strong in the grace that is in Christ Jesus." (NKJV) Where is saving grace found? In Christ Jesus. Okay, how does Paul say we get into Christ Jesus? He says, "Do you not know that as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into His death?" (Rom 6:3 NKJV) And he makes the same statement in Gal. 3:27 when he says, "as many of you as were baptized into Christ." (NKJV) Anyone who can put two and two together can add the same here.

Paul said the same thing earlier in the book of Romans when he said that we are "justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus." (Rom 3:24 NKJV) A person thus seeking to be saved by the grace of God ought to get into Christ Jesus where redemption is found, there and there only will he find grace and salvation. The New Testament tells us too clearly to misunderstand how to get into Christ.

In Christ, there is salvation (2 Tim. 2:10), eternal life (Rom. 6:23), a new creation (2 Cor. 5:17), every spiritual blessing (Eph. 1:3), forgiveness (Eph. 4:32), the promise of life (2 Tim. 1:1), redemption (Rom. 3:24), being alive to God (Rom 6:11), and grace (2 Tim. 2:1). When we are baptized we are baptized into the body of Christ (1 Cor. 12:13). One who has not been baptized is outside the body of Christ and thus outside all of the blessings that are found only in Christ. All good things are found in Christ, not out of him. That includes grace as clearly shown for all who will accept 2 Timothy 2:1.

Bible faith by which God's grace comes is a faith that believes what God has said so strongly that he does not question it but if God has said it the matter with him is settled. The true man of faith does not need to hear a passage on baptism but once and whatever is said on that topic he immediately believes and is ready to obey if he has not already done so.

Yes, it may take some study to see how all of the things by which God has said we are saved work together in a harmonious whole but if it is said by God or one of his inspired messengers that we are saved by baptism (1 Peter 3:31), or receive forgiveness of sins in baptism (Acts 2:38), or put on Christ in baptism (Gal. 3:27) then a genuine man of faith says immediately "it is so." They do not argue about how it is not so.

Paul himself was saved by grace as we all are yet he was not saved before baptism by grace alone. Hear his personal story. On his way to Damascus to persecute Christians, as one who did not believe, the Lord confronted him and he was made a true believer and repented of his sins. Luke tells us when confronted by the Lord that Saul (Paul) trembled and was astonished. (Acts 9:6) He was told by the Lord himself to "go into the city, and you will be told what you must do." (Acts 9:6 NKJV)

Denominational doctrine almost across the board, meaning no matter what group you are talking about, has him now saved. He believes and has repented and "by grace are ye saved through faith" (Eph. 2:8 KJV) so they see him as saved. The trouble of it is, is that Jesus told him he had to go into the city where it would be told him "what you must do." (Acts 9:6) So, whatever he must do has not yet been told him at the point of faith and repentance.

Then we see that for the next 3 days this saved man (?) is living in misery rather than rejoicing in his salvation. Luke says, he "neither ate nor drank" (Acts 9:9 NKJV) during that whole time; why not? Is it not because he does not yet know what it is he "must do?" (Acts 9:6) I might add the thing he must do, whatever it was to be, was related to having his sins forgiven. How do I know?

Saul already knew what the future held for him for in Acts 26:16-18 he says Jesus told him when he appeared to him on the road to Damascus. He knew he would be God's servant and sent to the Gentiles to preach even before entering the city of Damascus. (Acts 26:16-18) That was not going to be the thing he was going to be told he must do when he entered the city of Damascus for that he already knew.

What was it he was told he must do? Ananias told him, "And now why are you waiting? Arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord." (Acts 22:16 NKJV) He was told to be baptized to wash away his sins. That was what he must do. So here we have a man saved by grace and we know exactly how he was saved. He had faith, he had repented of his sins, and he was baptized to wash away his sins.

Was he saved by grace? Yes! When he obeyed he was saved by God's grace for he was then in Christ where salvation is found. His sins had been washed away by the grace of God for he had believed and obeyed God.

Do you want to be saved by grace? You can try it the denominational way if you so desire but my advice to you would be that I would try it the Bible way by doing what Paul did. You can not go wrong doing that.

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Obedience of Faith and Justification by Faith—A Conflict?

The book of Romans begins and ends talking about the “obedience of faith” (Rom. 1:5 and Rom. 16:26). In chapter 1 Paul says, “We have received grace and apostleship to bring about the obedience of faith among all the Gentiles.” (Rom. 1:5 NAS) In Rom. 16 he speaks of the gospel being made known to all nations with the purpose being “obedience of faith.” (Rom. 16:26 NAS)

Obedience of faith is simply the obedience that grows out of or is the result of faith. No man obeys God who does not first believe in God and believes what God says. Without faith, there is no motivation for obedience. Where there is no faith the natural man prevails--our fleshly human nature. We do what pleases us without thought of God.

Faith is always the first step in pleasing God. “Without faith it is impossible to please him, for he who comes to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of those who seek him.” (Heb. 11:6 NAS)

Jesus said, in speaking of himself in John 8:24, “Unless you believe that I am he, you shall die in your sins.” (NAS) Jesus again, “he who has disbelieved shall be condemned.” (Mark 16:16 NAS) We might say disbelieved what? The gospel message (1 Cor. 15:1-4, Mark 16:15-16), the fact that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God (Acts 8:37, Philippians 2:11, 1 John 3:23), that he is Lord and Christ (Acts 2:36).

So, faith is essential to salvation. Where there is no faith salvation is impossible. We must always remember, however, that “faith without works is useless.” (James 2:20 NAS) “Faith without works is dead.” (James 2:26 NAS) Thus in John 12, we find a group of believers who could not be saved. “Nevertheless many even of the rulers believed in him but because of the Pharisees they were not confessing him, lest they should be put out of the synagogue; for they loved the approval of men rather than the approval of God.” (John 12:42-43 NAS) We do well to remember even demons believe (James 2:19).

The faith Paul spoke of in the book of Romans was that which led to obedience. It was an obedience of faith. It was a living faith and not a dead faith.

I have said all of that to get to this point. Why is it that men use Rom. 5:1-2 in such a way as to make void works (obedience) of faith? Rom. 5:1-2 reads as follows:

“Therefore having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom also we have obtained our introduction by faith into this grace in which we stand; and we exult in hope of the glory of God.” (NAS)

It is widely taught that man is saved by faith alone and this passage is often used as one proof text. Of course, we are justified by faith but not faith alone or faith only. “You see that a man is justified by works, and not by faith alone.” (James 2:24 NAS) Faith must be accompanied by obedience for it is the obedience of faith that saves--a living faith and not a dead one.

In Acts chapter 2 Peter preaches the first gospel sermon ever to be preached not long after Christ’s ascension back to heaven. All agree that he spoke by inspiration as the Holy Spirit had just fallen upon the apostles. He argues that the Jesus whom they had not long ago crucified was and is the Christ of God. What is the result? Does he convince them? He most certainly does for they cry out being “pierced to the heart … ‘Brethren, what shall we do?’” (Acts 2:37 NAS)

Would you dare say these men lack faith? According to our saved by faith-alone friends, the mission has been accomplished. Nothing else to be done. They are saved. Oh, they might, according to the teaching of our times, offer a prayer to God confessing to him--a confession of faith--but that is it.

Did Peter tell them they were saved when he realized they believed?  If they did not believe they would not have asked what they must do, Acts 2:37.  Did he tell them to offer a prayer of confession to God? He neither told them they were saved nor to pray. I emphasize this--he did neither. With Peter, the Holy Spirit being in Peter, they were not yet saved, not yet forgiven of their sins. What was left to be done? Obedience of faith, repentance and baptism. In Peter’s own words, “repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins.” (Acts 2:38 NAS)

Paul’s conversion was similar as found in Acts chapters 9, 22, and 26. When the Lord appeared to him on the road to Damascus there was no doubt but what faith came instantly to him. Salvation by faith only advocates have Paul saved at this point. They have him saved by their human doctrine but God does not.

Paul (called Saul at that time) spends the next 3 days in Damascus neither eating nor drinking, strange behavior for a man who should be rejoicing in his salvation if he is saved (Acts 9:9). He prays (Acts 9:11). Now, according to the salvation by faith alone people, he has to be saved. He has faith. He has prayed. It is a done deal.

Not so with the man sent from God to Paul, the man Ananias. Ananias tells him to “Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on his name.” (Acts 22:16 NAS) Jesus had already told all who would believe him, a long time before Paul’s conversion, that water was involved in salvation. In Jesus’ words, “Unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” (John 3:5 NAS) He said, “He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved.” (Mark 16:16 NAS)

What is baptism? It is one aspect of obedience of faith. In Acts 2 on the day of Pentecost when Peter preached that first sermon would there have been obedience of faith had those he spoke to failed to heed his admonition? What if Paul had refused to heed the words of Ananias? Would there have been obedience of faith?

Justification by faith is dependent on obedience of faith. The book of Romans was not written to people who had not been baptized. I want to emphasize that point. Those to whom Paul wrote were baptized people.

“Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into his death? Therefore we have been buried with him through baptism into death, in order that as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in newness of life.” (Rom. 6:3-4 NAS) Who gets to walk in newness of life? Paul tells you. It is the man or woman who has been baptized.

How is it, do you suppose, that the Romans came to know about baptism? Do you suppose it was taught to them in the same way Peter taught those in Jerusalem on the Day of Pentecost? Paul also tells how the Romans got into Christ. He says, “All of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus.” (Rom. 6:3 NAS) He said the same thing in Gal. 3:27 in writing to the Galatian Christians.

Of grace, Paul says “We have obtained our introduction by faith into this grace in which we stand.” (Rom. 5:2 NAS) He is talking to us all but in context, the message is to the Romans. Where is grace found? We are to “be strong in the grace that is in Christ Jesus.” (2 Tim. 2:1 NAS) We enter into Christ by the obedience of faith. Our faith leads us to be baptized per Mark 16:15-16. When we have done so we have been saved by grace for we are then found in Christ where grace is found.

I know a lot of people have a hard time with grace and law. Any effort to be obedient, especially being baptized, is seen as a work and thus working one’s way to heaven. What people fail to understand is man has always been and always will be under law to God.

If there has been no law there has been no sin for John defines sin as being lawlessness, “sin is lawlessness.” (1 John 3:4 NAS) Were Adam and Eve under law to God? How about the people in the time of Noah? Why did they die if not because of lawlessness? How about the people of Sodom and Gomorrah? I remind the reader all of this was before the time of the Law of Moses. Then later we have a long period of time when the Jews were under the Law of Moses.

Well, how about today? Are we under law today? Paul says if we “bear one another’s burdens” we “fulfil the law of Christ.” (Gal. 6:2 NAS) To the Corinthians he speaks of himself as “not being without the law of God but under the law of Christ.” (1 Cor. 9:21 NAS) Being under grace as we are today does not mean lawlessness. If Paul was under the law of Christ so are you and I. In Romans, the very book from which this article is drawn, Paul says “The mind set on the flesh is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the Law of God.” (Rom. 8:7 NAS)

Yet, the reader of the book of Romans will recall that a good portion of the book deals with the teaching that one cannot be saved by the works of the law. “By the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in his sight.” (Rom. 3:20 NAS) One thing that is often overlooked as people read through books such as Romans, Galatians, and Hebrews is that what the writer is combating, generally speaking, is the idea held by many Jews that keeping the Law of Moses was the road to salvation.

Paul often had to deal with Judaizing teachers within the church for even when converted to Christ many still believed keeping the Law of Moses, to one degree or another, was essential and were happy to try and bind that upon others. Thus there was an attempt by some to bind things like circumcision (Gal. 5:3) and it is said of Peter that he feared “the party of the circumcision” (Gal. 2:12 NAS). Had this group had their way it would have eventually destroyed Christianity.

It is true no man can be saved by law-keeping apart from grace. Salvation by law requires perfection in law-keeping. Thus Paul says, “For as many as are of the works of the Law are under a curse; for it is written, ‘Cursed is every one who does not abide by all things written in the book of the Law, to perform them.’” (Gal. 3:10 NAS) One mistake and you are not saved but condemned by law.

That being the case James says, “Whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles in one point, he has become guilty of all.” (James 2:10 NAS) When one breaks a single law he has convicted himself as being a lawbreaker. A criminal is a criminal. It matters not what one specific law he broke.

James’ statement is as applicable to the law of Christ as to any law. With regards even to the law of our land, you became a lawbreaker the first time you exceeded the speed limit by even a single mile per hour. You will always be guilty of having done that. You were a lawbreaker and there is no going back and undoing it.

This is why to be saved we must be saved by God’s grace. God being perfect himself demands perfection in us if we are to be saved by works of law. For us that is an impossibility.

But, does salvation by grace mean salvation by disobedience? Does it mean disregard for the law of God? Paul says, “May it never be!” (Rom. 6:2 NAS) Please listen now carefully to what Paul has to say and mull it over in your mind.

“How shall we who died to sin still live in it? Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into his death? Therefore we have been buried with him through baptism into death.” (Rom. 6:2-3 NAS) We have been baptized into his death where he shed his blood, the blood that redeems us. Baptism is the place where that blood is contacted. In baptism, we experience our own death to sin. Thus Paul says, in the conclusion of verse 3, “So we too might walk in newness of life.” (Rom. 6:3 NAS)

God has always saved man the same way--by faith and obedience, “obedience resulting in righteousness.” (Rom. 6:16 NAS) Other versions say “obedience to righteousness” (NKJV), “obedience, which leads to righteousness” (ESV), and so on.

The beginning of salvation is found in the beginning of the obedience of faith, not in a non-acting faith that resides in the mind alone. That is why Peter demanded of believers that day so long ago that they “repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins.” (Acts 2:38 KJV) That is the obedience of faith, the faith that saves. 

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