Bible Contradictions on Salvation

If we believe the Bible is the word of God, why do we often interpret it in a way that makes it contradict itself? Truth is harmonious or else it's not truth and cannot be. Jesus says of God's word, "Your word is truth." (John 17:17) It does not oppose itself when properly interpreted.

Martin Luther was persuaded he had found contradiction in the Bible between what Paul wrote in Romans about salvation being by faith versus James saying works were necessary. In an online article (online at the time I originally wrote this) entitled, "Martin Luther's View of the Epistle of James" by Daniel Petty, he says, "Once Luther remarked that he would give his doctor's beret to anyone who could reconcile James and Paul (Bainton 259)." (Petty's source: Bainton, Roland H., Here I Stand: A Life of Martin Luther, New York: New American Library, 1950; 1978.)

Martin Luther's doctrine does indeed make Paul and James contradict one another. That fact alone ought to tell you Luther was wrong in his theology, no matter how sincere. Any time your doctrine makes the Bible contradict itself, this tells you, if you will listen, that your doctrine is in error, that you are wrong in your thinking, and need a new approach to understanding the scripture.

In the first place, we err when we speak of the word of God as though it came from man, even though I concede we generally know what is meant by such statements. But the reality is it is not Paul's word, then James' word, and then Peter's, etc., for "all scripture is given by inspiration of God." (2 Tim. 3:16 NKJV) What Paul wrote he wrote by inspiration. What James wrote he wrote by inspiration.

Thus if Paul says we are saved by faith and James says works are necessary, then both are correct, else you have God fighting against himself. Even worse, you have God lying in one place or the other if either Paul or James is wrong. If both are correct, truth is harmonious as it must be.

Everyone agrees the New Testament is full of passages that teach that a man is saved by faith, so I will only list a couple. "He who believes in the Son has everlasting life." (John 3:36 NKJV) "Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." (Rom. 5:1 NKJV)

We all accept these passages and this teaching, but too often people do not consider or give thought to what faith is. Do these passages define faith? Do they tell you whether this is a living faith or a dead faith as per James? Is it an obedient faith or a disobedient faith? Is faith just a matter of the mind alone, a belief held, or is it more than that? The texts do not tell us.

The assumption is we know what faith is, and generally that is whatever we each individually want it to be. We define it as we desire. This creates a lot of problems in interpreting the Bible; the result is we end up with doctrines that contradict the Bible.

Without preaching a sermon on faith to define it, let me refer you to James 2:22. "You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by his works." (ESV)

The scriptural biblical faith that saves is that faith which is a completed faith, not an incomplete faith. Other versions use the word "perfect" instead of the word "complete." It is the faith that is made perfect that saves rather than the faith not made perfect.

The New Living Translation of the Bible, which I consider a paraphrase, gets at the sense of what is being taught. "You see, he was trusting God so much that he was willing to do whatever God told him to do. His faith was made complete by what he did — by his actions." (James 2:22 NLT, 1996 edition)

This is saving faith, the faith that saves, the only kind of faith that makes a difference, the only concept of faith we should hold, the only concept of saving faith that is scriptural. Only faith so strong that it obeys can save, but this is the very concept of faith that is wanting among large numbers of believers.

James then says by inspiration that we are saved by works. "You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only." (James 2:24 NKJV) A man can either believe that or say it is a lie. We can say no, justification is by faith alone. A man can say a lot of things. It is what the Bible says that matters. Nowhere does the Bible say we are saved by faith alone, and nowhere does it say we are saved by works alone. It is a faith completed by obedient works that saves; thus both faith and obedience (works) save.

Jesus has said we will be judged by his word on the last day. "He who rejects Me, and does not receive My words, has that which judges him — the word that I have spoken will judge him in the last day." (John 12:48 NKJV) If a person's doctrine does not allow for salvation by both faith and works, he is in error, since the Bible states clearly that one is saved by both. The passages quoted above suffice to show that.

But one will object. How about Eph. 2:8-9, "For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast." (NKJV) Since the Bible, and truth, cannot contradict itself, it becomes immediately obvious that Paul is speaking of one kind of works while James speaks of another. One type of works saves; the other does not and cannot.

The type of works that cannot save are the works of the Law of Moses. Why could they not save? I quote Gal. 3:10 (TEV), "Those who depend on obeying the Law live under a curse. For the scripture says, 'Whoever does not always obey everything that is written in the book of the Law is under God's curse!'" One act of disobedience at any point in the course of one's life would condemn him without remedy under the law. No man can live a perfect life without ever sinning. No man will ever be a perfect law keeper.

This being the case, Paul writes in Gal. 3:21, "For if there had been a law given which could have given life, truly righteousness would have been by the law." (NKJV) Since no such law was given, man could only be saved by Christ, by faith in him.

But there are works other than the works of the Law of Moses. These are the works James speaks of which bring justification. What are those works? Hear the writer of the book of Hebrews.

The Hebrew writer says of Jesus, "And having been perfected, He became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him." (Heb. 5:9 NKJV) Paul, who speaks so much of salvation by faith and grace, says in Rom. 6:16, "Do you not know that to whom you present yourselves slaves to obey, you are that one's slaves whom you obey, whether of sin to death, or of obedience to righteousness?" Note his phrase, "obedience to righteousness." This is the same as to say obedience to salvation, for the righteous person will be saved, not the unrighteous.

It becomes clear then that the works James speaks of that bring justification are works of obedience to Christ and are the same as Paul's "obedience to righteousness." James' "works" and Paul's "obedience" are equivalents, one and the same.

Too many are ready to say that obedience is more or less equivalent to law keeping. Since we are not saved by law, they do not see obedience as being essential. For example, from their point of view, Christ commands baptism, but one does not have to obey that to be saved. To require it would be law keeping or salvation by works.

The trouble with that way of thinking is that the idea is in conflict with passages such as those I have just quoted — Hebrews 5:9, for example — where Christ is said to be the author of salvation to all who obey him. If one's doctrine does not harmonize with total Bible preaching on a subject, it cannot be true.

The truth is Christ was also a lawgiver and has a law we are expected to keep as much as we humanly can. Listen to the following scriptures. "Bear one another's burdens, and so fulfill the law of Christ." (Gal. 6:2 NKJV) This is Paul's writing, the very one who wrote of salvation by grace and faith. Paul says of himself, "not being without law toward God, but under law toward Christ." (1 Cor. 9:21 NKJV)

The Hebrew writer says, "For the priesthood being changed, of necessity there is also a change of the law." (Heb. 7:12 NKJV) He doesn't say now there is no law, but only that the law has changed. It is now the law of Christ, not the Law of Moses. If there is no law today, how does one commit sin? John says, depending on which version you use, that "sin is lawlessness" (NKJV, NAS), "sin is the transgression of the law." (KJV, 1 John 3:4)

Jesus himself says, "He who has my commandments and keeps them, it is he who loves me." (John 14:21 NKJV) Is a God-given commandment not law?

But here is the difference. The Law of Moses required perfect law-keeping for salvation, which no man other than Jesus ever did. The law of Christ, while still law, provides a grace element for sin. The person, however, who thinks he can forget all about the commandments of Jesus and just be saved by grace and faith apart from works of obedience makes the scriptures contradict themselves, invites lawlessness, and propagates error if he teaches such. The scriptures are harmonious.

This brings us to the place where so many want to kick and say it is not so — to baptism. The Bible teaches we are saved by baptism. "There is an antitype which now saves us, namely baptism (not the removal of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God), through the resurrection of Jesus Christ." (1 Peter 3:21 NKJV)

"Then Peter said to them, 'Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins,'" while preaching the first gospel sermon ever heard after the resurrection of Jesus. (Acts 2:38 NKJV)

Saul was told, "Arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins." (Acts 22:16 NKJV)

Jesus says, "Unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God." (John 3:5 NKJV)

Paul, the very man who speaks of salvation by faith, although never faith alone, says, "For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ." (Gal. 3:26-27 NKJV) Many would have this read, "for as many of you as were not baptized into Christ have put on Christ." Really! That will not work. That is not what Paul said or taught.

Paul says in Rom. 6:3, "as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus," so he says the same thing again that he had said in Gal. 3:26-27. One is baptized into Christ. Salvation is in Christ. Paul says (2 Tim. 2:10 NKJV), "Therefore I endure all things for the sake of the elect, that they also may obtain the salvation which is in Christ Jesus with eternal glory."

Salvation is "in Christ Jesus." We are, Paul says, "baptized into Christ Jesus." Thus if there is no baptism, there is no being in Christ Jesus and no salvation, which is found only in Christ Jesus.

One can believe it or not, but make no mistake about it, that is what God's word says and teaches. When God says something, we ought to believe it and obey it. One's sins are forgiven at baptism, which is the act where one contacts the blood of Christ, spiritually speaking.

Jesus shed his blood in his death. Paul says we are baptized into his death (Rom. 6:3), which is where Jesus' blood is located, for the simple reason that is where God chose to locate it. No, there is no real blood in the water. No one ever literally comes into contact with physical blood. But figuratively, or spiritually, that is the place God chose for us to come into contact with the blood of the cross for the remission of our sins.

In 2 Kings 5:11 (NKJV) we find a man by the name of Naaman who wanted to be healed of his leprosy and thus came to Elisha, God's prophet. He was told to go dip seven times in the Jordan River. This did not satisfy him. He did not want water involved in his cleansing. "But Naaman became furious, and went away and said, 'Indeed, I said to myself, "He will surely come out to me, and stand and call on the name of the LORD his God, and wave his hand over the place, and heal the leprosy."'" (2 Kings 5:11 NKJV)

Naaman wanted to be cleansed of his leprosy but wanted it done his way, and at first that did not include any water. It was only after he decided to go about it in God's way that he was cleansed. We ought to learn from that. If God wants water involved in our cleansing from sin, why should we object? Why should we object to doing it God's way?

So far I have not mentioned even one item that conflicts with another in the teaching of God's word concerning those things that bring about our salvation. The reason is that everything God has had to say on the matter works together in perfect harmony with everything else he has had to say about it. Faith is not in conflict with works, is not in conflict with obedience, and is not in conflict with baptism.

The word of God does not contradict itself. Whatever the Bible says you are saved by, made righteous by, justified by, is truth, and is essential to salvation. To say it is not is to reflect upon the word of God. It is to set God's word aside to keep one's own tradition, the tradition of men. Many have done that on the subject of how a man is saved.

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The Conversion of Lydia

In Acts 16:13-15 we find the account of the conversion of Lydia in the city of Philippi. This is a very interesting conversion account and one that men have debated as to what actually happened. It is a short account so let us read it and see if there is anything to debate or to cause controversy.

"And on the Sabbath day we went outside the gate to a riverside, where we were supposing that there would be a place of prayer; and we sat down and began speaking to the women who had assembled. (Acts 16:13 NAS77)

And a certain woman named Lydia, from the city of Thyatira, a seller of purple fabrics, a worshiper of God, was listening; and the Lord opened her heart to respond to the things spoken by Paul. (Acts 16:14 NAS77)

And when she and her household had been baptized, she urged us, saying, "If you have judged me to be faithful to the Lord, come into my house and stay." And she prevailed upon us. (Acts 16:15 NAS77)"

Paul, Silas, and Timothy, as you recall, entered the city of Philippi to preach the gospel. Their first opportunity, as far as we can tell, is to a group of women out at the riverside at a gathering place for prayer. Lydia was one of the women assembled there.

The first mystery to some people is found in the statement in verse 14 where it is said that "the Lord opened her heart to respond to the things spoken by Paul." Well, how did the Lord do that? Did God take a kind of spiritual crowbar to her heart and force it open? Did the Holy Spirit come upon her in some mysterious operation, taking over her will and making her receptive to the gospel as Paul preached it? Some think so. The reality is there is no truth to such suppositions, as will soon be shown.

God opened Lydia's heart to the gospel simply by the preaching of the word. How do I know? That is a fair question. If God acted miraculously on the heart of Lydia, resulting in a sort of forced conversion, one of which she had no way of resisting, and God is no respecter of persons (Acts 10:34 KJV), shows no partiality (Rom. 2:11, Eph. 6:9, Col. 3:25), and teaches us that it is a sin to show partiality (James 2:9), then God did the very thing in converting Lydia that he says, through his word, that he does not do and that he condemns in us. None of us believe that.

Lydia's heart was opened by God's word in the same natural way yours and mine are. For example, all of us have read passages in the Bible that condemn us for something we have done at one time or another, resulting in a pang of guilt and sorrow within us. Is that the Holy Spirit acting miraculously on my heart, or is it the power of the word of God upon a man's heart? Yes, it is the Spirit working, but working through the word, not miraculously separate and apart from the word. We retain the free will to either believe what we read, thus allowing it to touch our hearts, or the free will to pass it off and reject it.

Our hearts are left free to choose either for or against the gospel, thus we can be fairly condemned for choosing to reject it. If it was otherwise, how could it be said that God was fair to all? In conversion, God treats all the same and does not play favorites.

But I want to make a note here about Paul's preaching that day. In other articles I have written, I have tried to show that in first-century accounts of gospel preaching, all men who preached taught the same thing with the same results among those who believed. Whether it was Peter, Philip, or Ananias doing the preaching, and now Paul, the result was that in every case where the preaching was believed the result was that believers were baptized. When we believe the words of Peter, preaching by inspiration, in Acts 2:38, we readily see why that was the case.

What did Paul preach to Lydia? We all agree he taught the fundamentals of the Christian faith. With Paul, as with the other evangelists of his day, that included baptism for the remission of sins. The text says Lydia was baptized along with her household (Acts 16:15), but when did she do this and why? The verse before, verse 14, tells us that she was responding "to the things spoken by Paul." (NAS)

Paul preached to her the gospel. Paul preached baptism because Lydia was baptized in response to the things spoken by Paul (verse 14). Baptism then is a part of the gospel. The gospel cannot be preached without baptism being preached. We see it preached by Peter, by Philip, by Ananias, and now by Paul.

Some might respond by saying in earlier accounts, found in earlier chapters of Paul's missionary efforts, accounts are given where baptism is not mentioned—passages like Acts 13:12, 13:39, 48, and Acts 14:1, 14:21. The reader ought to take into account two things regarding such passages.

(1) They are summary statements of what happened and not detailed accounts of conversion. For example, Acts 14:21 simply says they "made many disciples." There is no attempt to say how that was done. Acts 13:39 says, "Everyone who believes is freed from all things, from which you could not be freed through the Law of Moses." (NAS) True, but what is not stated is what is to be believed. In Acts 13:48 the text says "as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed." (NAS) Believed what? If they believed what Paul preached, then they believed, among other things, that they must be baptized. But the point is that such passages are just summary statements without details being provided.

Let the reader ask himself this question. None of these accounts mention a word about repentance, nor should they, given the fact they are, as has been stated, summary statements. Do we believe that there is such a thing as salvation by faith without any repentance of sins? Again, when it is simply stated that people believed, it is a summary of what took place and not a detailed account of everything they believed and believed to the point of obedience.

If we were studying the subject of biblical hermeneutics, we would say the word "believed," when used in such passages as we have been talking about, is used as a figure of speech called a "synecdoche." A synecdoche is "a figure of speech by which we speak of the whole by a part." (Hermeneutics, by D. R. Dungan, page 300) As Dungan says, "This is many times the case with the salvation of sinners. The whole number of conditions are indicated by the use of one. Generally the first one is mentioned—that of faith—because without it nothing else could follow." (page 305)

In more detailed accounts we know what was preached and what was believed by what was done. Lydia was baptized because the text says she was responding to what was preached, and Paul was the preacher.

(2) Paul preached the same gospel wherever he went, not one thing in one place and something else in another. If you can find what he preached once, you know he always taught the same thing elsewhere. Paul says, "But even though we, or an angel from heaven, should preach to you a gospel contrary to that which we have preached to you, let him be accursed." (Gal 1:8 NAS) Paul did not preach different things in different places when it came to the gospel. If he preached baptism to Lydia, he preached the same wherever he went, and we know he preached it to her.

If Paul did not believe baptism for the remission of sins was essential to gospel obedience (and thus salvation), then please tell me how he could have written what he did in passages such as Rom. 6:3-4 and Gal. 3:26-27. Tell me why, when Ananias told him "now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on his name" (Acts 22:16 NAS), Paul did not object and respond to Ananias along the line of "now look here Ananias, I know you have the Spirit of God, but the minute I met Jesus on the road I believed and was saved, and so both you and the Spirit are in error. I need not be baptized to wash away any sins, for they were forgiven me when Jesus appeared to me and I first believed." Why did he not respond that way?

It astounds me that people can claim to be saved by faith, apart from baptism, given the fact their claim to believe is fraudulent. How can I believe in Jesus and yet deny what he taught? Jesus taught both personally on the subject of baptism (Matt. 28:19, Mark 16:15-16, John 3:5) and through his Holy Spirit-inspired apostles and prophets. Believe in him, just not in what he has said, and you will be saved, seems to be the idea. What! How does that work? Someone needs to explain that.

What does it mean to be faithful to God as a new convert? Lydia says, as a new convert speaking to Paul and his party, "If you have judged me to be faithful to the Lord, come into my house and stay." (Acts 16:15 NAS) That they did, because they judged her, as she says, as one who was faithful to the Lord.

What did she do to become faithful? She believed what Paul preached (including baptism) and responded to it by acting upon it. If one wants to become faithful to the Lord, they need to do what she did, assuming they have not already done so. Would she have been judged faithful if she had not been baptized? Think about that long and hard. Paul taught it. Let us say she refused to do it. Would she then have been judged to be faithful?

One final fact about Lydia's conversion that has caused trouble is that the text says "she and her household" were baptized (Acts 16:15 NAS). The thought is that this means she and her young children, maybe including infants. It is easily seen that infants were not baptized, for the simple reason that baptism is of no value to one who is not a sinner, as its purpose is for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38) and infants have no sin. They are safe in the arms of God as is.

But there is another point as well confirming there was no infant baptism or baptism of very young children. Baptism saves only when accompanied by faith (Mark 16:16), for it is "He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved." (NAS77) It is not "he who is too young to believe and is baptized shall be saved." Baptism, isolated from faith and repentance, has no inherent power to save.

For those who want to believe there were infants in that household who were saved along with Lydia, bear in mind, remember, if so they were saved without faith. Can one be saved without faith? "But without faith it is impossible to please Him, for he who comes to God must believe that He is, and that He is a rewarder of those who diligently seek Him." (Heb. 11:6 NKJV)

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Ashamed of Jesus and His Words

In Luke 9:26 Jesus made the following statement, "For whoever is ashamed of Me and My words, of him will the Son of Man be ashamed when He comes in His glory, and the glory of the Father and of the holy angels." (NAS)  There are two things here that we are told we must avoid if we are to keep Jesus from being ashamed of us in the day he returns to judge the world in righteousness (Acts 17:31) – (1) being ashamed of Jesus and (2) being ashamed of the words of Jesus.

We might well ask what is there about Jesus to be ashamed of.  The answer is obvious, nothing at all.  But lest we think we are clear on this count and before we begin to pat ourselves on the back thinking we are not ashamed of him let us think a little deeper about the matter.  Is Jesus just talking about our state of mind about him when he gives this warning against being ashamed of him?  I think not.

Jesus made another statement found in Matt. 10:32-33 which I believe ties in with the Luke 9 passage just quoted above.  He says, "Everyone therefore who shall confess me before men, I will also confess him before my father who is in heaven.  But whoever shall deny me before men, I will also deny him before my father who is in heaven." (NAS)  It is easy to say to ourselves I am not ashamed of Jesus and mean it but as the American idiom goes "when the rubber meets the road" and we should speak of Jesus, speak up and be heard when that test comes, is it not true that too often, maybe most all of the time, we hold our silence and fail to speak on his behalf?  I think that is generally true.

We do not speak because we do not want to be embarrassed or shamed by the world that ridicules faith in Jesus thus we are more concerned about receiving honor from men rather than the honor that comes from God alone.  We do not speak because we do not want to contend earnestly for the faith (Jude 3).  We do not speak because we do not want to wield "the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God." (Eph. 6:17 NAS)  We want to just get along.  As the saying goes there are two things you do not talk about lest you get into a fight--religion and politics.  However, man said that not God.  Jesus never held his peace and he was continually involved in verbal fights.

Yes, I am sure there is a time and a place for such discussions of Christ.  But here is the problem--we never find the right time or place do we?  It is like the right time and place never arises with us.  It is out there somewhere but we just never have found it and unless our hearts change we never will find it.  The bottom line is we are embarrassed or ashamed to talk of Christ to others unless we know them very, very well (immediate family?) and have judged what we think their reaction will be beforehand.  Others may know we are believers for we attend services regularly but they would never know it by our talking about Jesus.

Contrast that with Christ while he was on earth.  Every day he was talking religion, talking of God his Father, talking of faith and obedience and God's will for man.  Every day he was into discussions and often arguments with men over religion.  Is he our example?  Will we follow that example?  Are we afraid too?  Who are we more afraid of—other people or God?

That said there were two parts of the verse we are discussing, Luke 9:26.  We are also warned against being ashamed of the words of Jesus.  There are far more people who are willing to confess Jesus before men and uphold his honor in that regard than there are people who are willing to accept his words. 

First of all, I want all to understand that the words of Jesus are not just confined to the words printed in red in your New Testament.  Jesus, in John 16, spoke of the coming of the Holy Spirit and said this, "He will guide you into all the truth; for He will not speak on His own initiative, but whatever He hears, He will speak; and He will disclose to you what is to come.  He shall glorify Me; for He shall take of Mine, and shall disclose it to you." (John 16:13-14 NAS)  What was Jesus' that the Holy Spirit was to disclose?  The words of Jesus.

My copy of the original ASV of 1901 New Testament has on its title page these words: "The New Covenant commonly called The New Testament of Our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ."  That is what it is exactly.  Every word on its pages came from Jesus either directly or indirectly through the Holy Spirit.

Great indeed is the number of those who claim to be Christians that will not believe but parts of the word and are thus ashamed of the words of Jesus.  How many denominationalists will ever preach what Peter preached, by means of the Holy Spirit, in Acts 2;38, "Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins"? (NAS)  They are ashamed of those words of Jesus and do not believe them and will not abide in them and will not teach them.  To them those gathered on that Pentecost day were saved the minute they repented and as they would put it "received Jesus into their hearts" so you cannot believe these words about baptism for the forgiveness of sins that Peter spoke on behalf of Christ.

You can go to other passages and try and convince them.  For example, Ananias told Saul, "Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on His name." (NAS)  To them, Ananias did not know what he was talking about Holy Spirit or no Holy Spirit for they say baptism cannot wash away sins even if God says it can.  To them, the Holy Spirit should have worded that passage differently.  

Peter says, by the Holy Spirit, "baptism now saves you" (1 Peter 3:21 NAS) but not with them for they will not believe the words of Jesus and are ashamed of all such as related to baptism.  Even when Jesus spoke directly on the subject, "unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God" (John 3:5 NAS) it is not accepted.  Of such people, it will never be said of them that they obeyed Jesus who said, "If anyone keeps my word he shall never see death." (John 8:51 NAS)  His word is what they are not keeping.  This is only an example, one topic, where people are ashamed of the words of Jesus, even religious people.

I will say this; it is not easy to live up to the demands found in this Luke 9:26 passage.  It takes courage, great courage, to speak of Jesus to others and defend the words of Jesus.  It takes great courage to overcome the fear of contention, fights, debates, and strife that will naturally arise when one does speak up and does not hold his peace.

I am reminded, however, of the passage found in Matt. 10:34-36 where Jesus said, "Do not think that I came to bring peace on the earth; I did not come to bring peace, but a sword.  For I came to set a man against his father, and a daughter against her mother, and a daughter-in-law against her mother-in-law; and a man's enemies will be the members of his household." (NAS)  We all want peace but each of us has to make up his/her mind as to where we prefer that peace--here or the hereafter.  Which will last the longest? 

Jesus suffered a violent death and it was because he spoke up and did not hold his peace.  Most historians think most of the apostles suffered similar fates and we know from history of burnings at the stake and violent deaths of many early Christians.  Again it was not because they held their peace but because they spoke up.  They were not ashamed to speak up for Jesus and were not ashamed of his words.

It takes strength to defend the very words of the New Testament, the words of Jesus.  The Holy Spirit, speaking through Paul, said clearly, "The time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but wanting to have their ears tickled, they will accumulate for themselves teachers in accordance to their own desires; and will turn away their ears from the truth, and will turn aside to myths." (2 Tim. 4:3-4 NAS)  Many seem to feel that day is still in the future.  They are wrong.  It may continue to get worse but that day is already here.  Here is the proof.

People commonly believe that people in and from every denomination will be saved thus proving Paul's point when he said "they will not endure sound doctrine."  Follow the train of thought here.  If people are saved from every denomination, all teaching different doctrines, then there is no such thing as sound doctrine.  If one denominational doctrine is as good as another there is no such thing as sound doctrine or enduring sound doctrine.  That being the case what Paul prophesied is already here and does not need to await the future.

One can take the commonly accepted stance that the church of which one is a member does not matter and all will speak well of him, they will be glad to hear he feels that way.  One can take the stance that baptism is not for the remission of sins and receive the applause of men.  But, that will not change what the Bible says about either of those subjects.  "Woe to you when all men speak well of you, for in the same way their fathers used to treat the false prophets." (Luke 6:26 NAS)  What we ought to do is quit being ashamed of the words of Jesus and start following them.

If Jesus is ashamed of us on the last day we are not going to be saved.  Most who read this article probably have children.  How would a parent feel, how does one feel, when his children are ashamed of him and his words?  Now apply that to how Jesus must feel when we are ashamed of him and his words.  There can be little doubt it hurts him deeply.

We all need to take Luke 9:26 to heart and do better.  It will take a great deal of strength and courage, even faith, to do so.  It will also take love for God.  Do we have what it will take and will we do it?  That is the question we all must answer. 

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God's Hardening of the Human Heart

Does God ever harden people's hearts?  No doubt about it.  Every Bible student is aware of God's hardening of the heart of Pharaoh back in the book of Exodus.  This was God's plan before Moses arrived in Egypt.  "And the LORD said to Moses, 'When you go back to Egypt, see that you do all those wonders before Pharaoh which I have put in your hand. But I will harden his heart, so that he will not let the people go.'" (Exod. 4:21 NKJV)

Why did God do this?  He tells us, as he told Pharaoh, "But indeed for this purpose I have raised you up, that I may show My power in you, and that My name may be declared in all the earth." (Exod. 9:16 NKJV)  Paul quotes this passage in Rom. 9:17 and then in the very next verse says, "Therefore He has mercy on whom He wills, and whom He wills He hardens." (Rom. 9:18 NKJV)  God willed to harden Pharaoh's heart.

Does God harden people's hearts arbitrarily; just pick out people at random to harden their hearts?  We know he does not for "God is love." (1 John 4:8 NKJV)  He "desires all men to be saved." (1 Tim. 2:4 NKJV)  He is "not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance." (2 Peter 3:9 NKJV)  "He does not afflict willingly, nor grieve the children of men." (Lam. 3:33 NKJV)  God does not harden a heart willingly since a heart hardened against God represents a lost soul.  There must be a reason that God hardens a heart. 

There are difficult issues involved in understanding this subject.  Whose hearts does God harden?  Why?  How does he do it?     

Many that I have read after are pretty much under the conviction that the way God hardened Pharaoh's heart and thus the heart of others whom he has hardened is through his word.  That is to say, God gives a command that a man does not want to receive and obey.  He (the man) refuses to do so.  The man thus hardens his own heart but there is a sense in which it could be said God hardened the man's heart by giving the commandment.  The idea is that God's word is the tool that God uses to harden the heart.

We can see there is truth that words can harden hearts from our everyday conversations and simple observation.  Say the wrong thing to someone, innocent as your intentions may have been, and the first thing you know they are angry at you and develop a hardened attitude toward you.  Hopefully, in your adult life, this has seldom happened to you personally but I think we have all seen or observed the thing.   

There is no doubt God's word when directed at one's heart can harden a heart already inclined to disbelieve and disobey (belief being against their perceived self-interest as they see it).  His word rebukes the sinner who then gets his back up and rebels even further.

There is much merit in the argument that God's word does harden some.  However, is that the only means God uses to harden people's hearts whom he hardens?  That is a very difficult question to answer.  After all of the plagues were over and Pharaoh had released the children of Israel to leave Egypt, God instructs Moses to camp at Pi Hahiroth by the sea (Exod. 14:2) the reason being, "Then I will harden Pharaoh's heart, so that he will pursue them; and I will gain honor over Pharaoh and over all his army, that the Egyptians may know that I am the LORD." (Exodus 14:4 NKJV)  Here it seems a further hardening was coming.  God intended for Pharaoh and his army to enter the Red Sea for their destruction.

That this is certain we can ascertain from the following passage: 

"And the LORD said to Moses, 'Why do you cry to Me? Tell the children of Israel to go forward.  But lift up your rod, and stretch out your hand over the sea and divide it. And the children of Israel shall go on dry ground through the midst of the sea.  And I indeed will harden the hearts of the Egyptians, and they shall follow them. So I will gain honor over Pharaoh and over all his army, his chariots, and his horsemen.  Then the Egyptians shall know that I am the LORD, when I have gained honor for Myself over Pharaoh, his chariots, and his horsemen.'" (Exod. 14:15-18 NKJV)

This hardening seems to have come when the Egyptians were on the very edge of the bed of the Red Sea.  It is hard to see how this hardening was just a function of the rejection of God's word for this hardening seems to be in addition to the hardening that had occurred earlier.  On its face, it seems to be a hardening separate and apart from the word.

In Joshua 11 we find a similar passage along much the same lines.  Joshua and the children of Israel are at war against the inhabitants of Canaan (the Promised Land).  The passage reads as follows:

"There was not a city that made peace with the children of Israel, except the Hivites, the inhabitants of Gibeon. All the others they took in battle.  For it was of the LORD to harden their hearts, that they should come against Israel in battle, that He might utterly destroy them, and that they might receive no mercy, but that He might destroy them, as the LORD had commanded Moses." (Josh. 11:19-20 NKJV)

There were 7 nations in the land of Canaan that God wanted totally destroyed.  They were the Hittites, the Girgashites, the Amorites, the Canaanites, the Perizzites, the Hivites, and the Jebusites (Deut. 7:1-2).  Why were they to be destroyed?  Was it just to make room for the children of Israel?  No, it was because of sin.  "It is because of the wickedness of these nations that the LORD is driving them out from before you." (Deut. 9:4 NKJV)  How sinful were these nations?  "Every abomination to the LORD which He hates they have done to their gods; for they burn even their sons and daughters in the fire to their gods." (Deut. 12:31 NKJV)  For other passages describing the sins of these nations in greater detail see Lev. 18 and Deut. 18:9-14.  God obviously did not harden hearts that were not already hard.  It takes a hard heart to burn your son or daughter to death. 

Both of these cases, that of Pharaoh and the Egyptians and that of the people who inhabited the land of Canaan, seem to be examples of what some would call a judicial hardening.  God had determined to pass judgment on them due to their sins and thus hardened their hearts to bring about their destruction.  It was judgment day for them.

Two points ought to be made here.  (1) People seem to be under the impression, and I have heard it said most of my life, that one can always repent and obey God as long as there is life in them--the idea being that we are judged after death.  There is just enough truth in this line of thought, the truth being that God is longsuffering, to make it exceedingly dangerous to a man.

In both the cases above just cited was God not executing judgment on men while they lived by ending their lives?  Many other such examples could be given from the Old Testament and then we have Ananias and Sapphira in the New Testament (Acts 5).  I do not see where the Bible teaches that a man can go on and on and on in sin without any need of fearing God here and now.  A person living in sin ought to be fearful everyday of God’s judgment.  I am not saying what God will do but I do not see how we can say what he won't do.

(2) The second point is that God inhabits eternity.  He knows what will be tomorrow as well as what was yesterday.  "I am God, and there is none like Me, Declaring the end from the beginning, And from ancient times things that are not yet done." (Isa. 46:9-10 NKJV)  He knows us from beginning to end.  While we have free will he knows what we will choose before we make the decision.  You say how can this be?  It is one of the great mysteries of God how God can have foreknowledge and yet man have free will.  Some things are beyond man's ability to understand.  Some things we must accept by faith.

The point to be made is that God does not harden a man for destruction who was going to repent if given more time to do so for God knew already what the man would choose.  There is no evidence in the Bible to support the idea that God ever has or will harden a heart that is not already hard.

Whatever means God used to harden Pharaoh's heart, or anyone else's for that matter, is then in a sense immaterial for the very reason that God does not harden hearts that are not already hard.  It was only after the sixth plague that the Bible says the Lord hardened Pharaoh's heart (Exod. 9:12).  Prior to that plague it was Pharaoh who hardened his own heart. 

John 12:37-40 is a New Testament passage on this subject that has caused some people some problems:

"But although He had done so many signs before them, they did not believe in Him,   that the word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spoke: 'Lord, who has believed our report?  And to whom has the arm of the LORD been revealed?'   Therefore they could not believe, because Isaiah said again:  'He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, lest they should see with their eyes and understand with their heart, lest they should turn, so that I should heal them.'" (John 12:37-40 NKJV)

In this passage it sounds like the Lord made it impossible for people to believe by blinding their eyes and hardening their hearts apart from their free will, that is he did it before and without giving them an opportunity for salvation.  If that would be the case then it would not be true that God "desires all men to be saved." (1 Tim. 2:4 NKJV)  It would not be true that God is "not willing that any should perish" (2 Peter 3:9 NKJV).  We thus know that if God did in fact blind their eyes and harden their hearts, and in some sense or way he did for the text says he did, it was not before they had an opportunity for salvation.

Isa. 6:10 is where Isaiah makes the statement about the hardening of the heart that John quotes in John 12:40 above.  This same passage from Isaiah is also quoted by Jesus himself in Matt. 13:14-15 and by Paul in Acts 28:26-27.  There is a slight twist, however, in Jesus' and Paul's quoting of the passage which helps clarify the text when considering how the hardening effect came about.  Jesus in quoting the Isaiah passage says, "their eyes they have closed" (Matt. 13:15 NKJV), and Paul says exactly the same thing in Acts 28:27.  Compare Matt. 13:15 with Acts 28:27 (Jesus and Paul) and you will see, at least in the New King James version, the exact same wording in both verses which I quote:

"For the heart of this people has grown dull.  Their ears are hard of hearing, and their eyes they have closed, lest they should see with their eyes and hear with their ears, lest they should understand with their heart and turn, so that I should heal them." (Matt. 13:15, Acts 28:27 NKJV)

Jesus makes it clear that it was the Jews themselves who closed their eyes and if you will read the Acts passage in its context (Acts 28:23-28) you will see Paul was blaming the Jews for a refusal to accept the message of the gospel.  As stated earlier, God's word can harden people who are already in their own hard hearts immune to it.  When that is the case it can certainly be said with justification that God has hardened a person's heart.  That is what we seem to have in the Isaiah quotation found in the New Testament passages listed above, people who already have hard hearts that are hardened even further by the hearing of God's word.  God hardened their hearts by his word.

We today seem to think that the door of opportunity for salvation remains open endlessly for a man.  It makes, so we think, little difference whether I obey the gospel today or twenty years from now (assuming one should live that long).  If we as Christians are living in unfaithfulness we have much the same attitude about time.  We think I can always repent.  However, the Bible says, "Now is the accepted time; behold, now is the day of salvation." (2 Cor. 6:2 NKJV)

Not only do we not know the day or hour of our death neither do we know whether we shall be hardened making salvation impossible.  I do not say God will directly harden your heart (nor would I say he would not) but I know you can harden your own and I also know when people are rebellious long enough and beyond hope that God will give them up (Israel and Judah of Old Testament times being examples).  Judgment day is not necessarily some day off in the distant future.  For all practical purposes judgment day for you or me is the day we die or otherwise become incapable of responding to the Lord.  Here is a quote from the Zondervan NIV Bible Commentary, Vol. 2:  New Testament, page 34; I think is applicable, "The cumulative effect of unbelief is a hardened attitude that becomes more impenetrable as time progresses."  

God is a God of love who offers to all the hope of salvation, at least up to a point in time largely determined by our own hearts.  God will use us to accomplish or fulfill his will.  If we are willing we can be a vessel of his for honor (2 Tim. 2:21).  But, if we are unwilling he can if he so desires still use us for his glory as he did the Egyptians who drowned in the Red Sea.  We get to choose which way it will be.  We are all given free will for a time but who can say how long or short a time that may be?

"Behold, now is the accepted time; behold, now is the day of salvation." (2 Cor. 6:2 NKJV)  "Today, if you will hear his voice, do not harden your hearts as in the rebellion." (Heb. 3:15 NKJV)  Amen!

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